-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give analgesia and, in view of the presence of night pain, arrange an urgent MRI spine
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better
Explanation:Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy
Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late sign indicating a poor prognosis and is associated with local tissue hypoxia caused by increased pressure within an unyielding osseo-fascial compartment?
Your Answer: Paraesthesia within distribution sensory nerves
Correct Answer: Anaesthesia
Explanation:Recognizing and Treating Compartment Syndrome: Early Signs and Prognosis
Compartment syndrome occurs when tissue pressure within an enclosed fascial compartment rises above capillary pressure, leading to reduced blood flow to distal tissues. While direct measurement of compartmental pressures is possible, clinical assessment is crucial. Treatment involves removing occlusive dressings, elevating the affected area, and performing fasciotomy if necessary. Complete anesthesia is a late sign and indicates poor prognosis due to myoneural necrosis. Paraesthesia, or abnormal sensation, is a relatively late sign, and progression to complete anesthesia indicates a worse prognosis. Distal pulses and capillary refill may be present even with significant increases in compartmental pressure. The earliest sign is severe pain on passive muscle stretch, followed by pink shiny skin and a feeling of pressure. Swollen leg is an early sign, and prompt diagnosis and treatment at this stage can lead to a good prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Superior labral anterior–posterior tear (SLAP)
Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear
Explanation:Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling
Explanation:Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment
A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the right kneecap. The patient reports difficulty bending the knee, and the symptoms are impacting his ability to work.
Based on the history and examination, the clinician suspects a diagnosis of 'housemaid's knee'.
'Housemaid's knee' is characterized by inflammation of the:Your Answer: Prepatellar bursa
Explanation:Bursae of the Knee: Locations and Causes of Inflammation
The knee joint is surrounded by several small fluid-filled sacs called bursae, which act as cushions between bones, tendons, and muscles. However, these bursae can become inflamed due to repetitive stress or injury, causing pain and discomfort. Here are some of the bursae located around the knee joint and their associated conditions:
1. Prepatellar bursa: This bursa is located between the skin and the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repeated friction, such as in professions that require prolonged kneeling.
2. Popliteus bursa: This bursa lies between the popliteus tendon and the lateral condyle of the tibia and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury.
3. Suprapatellar bursa: This bursa can be felt during a knee exam and may become inflamed due to trauma or infection.
4. Infrapatellar bursa: This bursa is located below the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repetitive kneeling, hence the name clergyman’s knee.
5. Semimembranous bursa: This bursa is located at the back of the knee and can become inflamed due to injury or underlying conditions such as arthritis.
In conclusion, understanding the locations and causes of knee bursitis can help individuals take preventive measures and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did not respond to over-the-counter analgesics. Pain is increasing in the night and is constant. It is not subsiding with rest. There is no history of trauma. She is a known diabetic and hypertensive. She had an episode of deep vein thrombosis 1 month ago and was on heparin for 3 weeks. She had no children and her husband passed away a year ago. Her current medications include captopril, metformin, warfarin, atorvastatin and aspirin 375 mg. X-ray of the spine shows a fracture of C6 vertebra.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying disease causing the fracture at this vertebral level?Your Answer: postmenopausal osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary
Explanation:Distinguishing Causes of Vertebral Fractures: A Guide for Clinicians
When a patient presents with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the underlying cause. Fractures at or above the T4 level are suggestive of cancer, rather than osteoporosis. This is especially true if the patient has no known primary cancer, as it may be a case of metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary.
postmenopausal osteoporosis and heparin-induced osteoporosis typically do not cause fractures at or above T4. Instead, fractures below T4 are more commonly seen in osteoporosis. However, a higher fracture associated with thoracic back pain is a red flag feature that should be investigated further with imaging, such as an MRI spine, as cancer is suspected.
Statin-induced myopathy is another condition that can cause muscle pain and weakness, but it does not typically present with back pain or vertebral fractures. Similarly, renal osteodystrophy due to diabetic nephropathy can affect the spine, but this patient does not have chronic renal failure. If diabetic nephropathy is present, it may progress to renal failure, which can lead to renal osteodystrophy.
In summary, when evaluating a patient with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the location of the fracture and any other symptoms or risk factors. This can help clinicians distinguish between potential causes and guide appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful and deformed wrist that looks like a dinner fork. A radiograph shows a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Her past medical history includes osteoporosis, type II diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this fracture?Your Answer: Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Distal Radial Fracture in an Elderly Patient
Distal radial fractures, commonly known as Colles’ fractures, are often seen in elderly patients with poor bone quality. There are several treatment options available for this type of fracture, but the choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the fracture.
Closed Reduction and Below-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
This is the most common treatment option for distal radial fractures. The fracture can be reduced with closed manipulation following a haematoma block, and then immobilized with a below-elbow backslab (half cast).Skeletal Traction
Skeletal traction is not practical for distal radial fractures as it can cause stiffness in the limb.Open Reduction and Internal Fixation
While open reduction and internal fixation can provide the most anatomical reduction, it comes with risks that may outweigh the benefits, especially in elderly patients with poor bone quality and co-morbidities.Intramedullary Rod
An intramedullary rod is rarely used for upper limb fractures.Closed Reduction and Above-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
Although an above-elbow backslab can stabilize the joint above and below the fracture, it is not recommended as it can cause stiffness and difficulty in regaining full use after removal.In conclusion, the treatment of distal radial fractures in elderly patients should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s overall health and the severity of the fracture. Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast) is the most common treatment option, while other options should be considered on a case-by-case basis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
Which of the following structures is most at risk?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Brachial artery
Explanation:Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus
Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the next step in the management of Mary, a 19-year-old army recruit who is experiencing bilateral anterior shin pain during her basic military training? Mary reports a diffuse pain along the middle of her shin with tenderness along the anterolateral surface of the tibia and pain on resisted dorsiflexion. Her pain is more severe at the beginning of exercise but decreases during training.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiographs of bilateral tibia/fibula
Explanation:Tibial Stress Syndrome: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Tibial stress syndrome is a common overuse injury that affects the shin area. It is often seen in athletes and military recruits who engage in high-impact activities or over-train. The condition is caused by traction periostitis of either the tibialis anterior or tibialis posterior on the tibia.
Diagnosis of tibial stress syndrome involves obtaining basic radiographs to rule out any stress fractures or periosteal exostoses. If a stress fracture or other soft tissue injury is suspected, an MRI or bone scan may be indicated. However, ultrasound does not play a role in the imaging of tibial stress syndrome.
The first step in managing tibial stress syndrome is activity modification. This involves decreasing the intensity and frequency of exercise, engaging in low-impact activities, modifying footwear, and regularly stretching and strengthening the affected area. In most cases, these measures are successful in treating the condition.
In severe cases that have failed non-operative treatment, a deep posterior compartment fasciotomy and release of the painful portion of the periosteum may be indicated.
It is important to reassure the patient and advise them to rest and ice their shins after exercise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients with tibial stress syndrome can return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur
Explanation:Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma
Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.
The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.
Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) after being tackled sideways, what would be the most effective course of treatment for him? He experienced a popping sound and now has a swollen, unstable and painful knee that cannot bear weight. MRI results confirmed the injury.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Operative repair with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
Explanation:Managing Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tears: Treatment Options and Considerations
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears are common injuries among athletes and active individuals. The best management option for a fit and active sportsman or sportswoman is an ACL reconstruction, which reduces the risk of further injury to the cartilage and meniscus and may prevent future osteoarthritis. Reconstruction can be performed using various grafts, such as bone-patella-bone autograft, quadruple hamstring autograft, quadriceps tendon autograft, or allograft. Physical therapy and avoidance of contact sports may be an option for patients with low physical demand, but not for those who wish to return to their previous level of activity. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) can provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying issue. Knee bracing with an immobilizer, analgesia, and physiotherapy may be an option for incomplete tears of the medial and lateral collateral ligament. Ligament repair has a high failure rate and is rarely used. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the injury, the patient’s goals and expectations, and the potential risks and benefits of each option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind
The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:
– The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
– The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
– The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
– The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
– The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
– The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures
Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.
2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.
3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.
While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after he fell off his bike and landed on his arm. Upon examination, his arm is swollen and causing him pain. There are no visible breaks in the skin and no neurovascular deficits were detected. X-rays were taken and the child was diagnosed with an unstable displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia pin fixation and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in Children
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a common injury in children, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture can cause pain, swelling, and resistance to arm examination. It is crucial to check and record the child’s neurovascular status, as a displaced fracture can compress or damage the brachial artery.
One treatment option for an unstable displaced fracture is reduction under anaesthesia and the insertion of pins to stabilise the fracture. After this procedure, the arm should be maintained in flexion with a collar and cuff, which acts as a natural splint. The degree of flexion should be determined by the presence of the radial pulse, and the child should be carefully observed for 24 hours after the operation to monitor for compartment syndrome.
While stabilisation is necessary after reduction, a below-elbow plaster is not appropriate for a supracondylar fracture. Instead, an above-elbow plaster or a collar and cuff is preferred. It is essential to choose the appropriate treatment option to minimise the risk of the fracture becoming displaced after reduction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms
The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:
1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.
2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.
3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.
4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.
5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.
Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves
The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.
Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.
Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis
Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.
Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.
Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.
Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral
Explanation:Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance
The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.
The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a car accident. She is alert and receives initial resuscitation in the ED. She has an open fracture of the left tibia and is seen by the orthopaedic surgery team.
Later during the day, she undergoes an intramedullary nailing procedure for fixing her fractured tibia. Seven days after the surgery, the patient complains of gradually worsening severe pain in the left leg.
Upon examination, she is found to be febrile and the wound area is not markedly erythematosus and there is no discharge from the wound site. There is no left calf tenderness and no swelling. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers, and a blood culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. An X-ray and leg Doppler ultrasound imaging reveal no subcutaneous gas. An urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) report prompts the surgeon to take this patient urgently back to theatre.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Postoperative Patient with Severe Pain and Fever
Possible diagnoses for a postoperative patient with sudden onset of severe pain and fever include infection in the overlying tissue or in the bone itself. Cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis are less likely, while osteomyelitis is the most probable diagnosis, as indicated by the urgent request for an MRI and the need for surgical intervention. Osteomyelitis requires prolonged intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement, and an MRI would typically show bone marrow oedema. A deep vein thrombosis is less likely due to the absence of clinical signs and ultrasound imaging findings. Cellulitis would present with superficial redness and less severe pain, while necrotising fasciitis would show subcutaneous gas on imaging. A surgical wound infection is possible but would typically involve pus discharge and not prompt urgent surgical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.
Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.
Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.
A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with a suspected ankle fracture. A fracture of the talus is noted, with the fracture line interrupting the subtalar joint.
With which of the following bones does the talus articulate at the subtalar joint?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:Articulations of the Talus Bone in the Foot
The talus bone is a key component of the foot, connecting to several other bones through various joints. Here are the articulations of the talus bone in the foot:
Subtalar Joint with Calcaneus
The subtalar joint connects the talus bone to the calcaneus bone. This joint allows for inversion and eversion of the foot.Talocalcaneonavicular Joint with Calcaneus and Navicular
The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball-and-socket joint that connects the talus bone to the calcaneus and navicular bones. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament completes this joint, connecting the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus to the plantar surface of the navicular bone.Medial Malleoli of Tibia
The talus bone also articulates with the medial malleoli of the tibia bone. This joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot.Lateral Malleoli of Fibula
The lateral malleoli of the fibula bone also articulate with the talus bone. This joint allows for lateral stability of the ankle.No Direct Articulation with Lateral Cuneiform
The talus bone does not directly articulate with the lateral cuneiform bone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus
Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.
Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.
Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan of the knee
Explanation:Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan
When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman was assaulted with a cricket bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Nerves of the Upper Arm: Course and Vulnerability to Injury
The upper arm is innervated by several nerves, each with a distinct course and function. The radial nerve, formed from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, runs deep with the brachial artery and is at risk for injury during midshaft humeral fractures. It has both sensory and motor components, which can be tested separately. The axillary nerve, intimately related to the surgical neck of the humerus, is at risk in fractures of this area but not in midshaft humeral fractures. The ulnar nerve passes medially to the radial nerve and is not at risk in midshaft humeral fractures. The median nerve, more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. The musculocutaneous nerve, also more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. Understanding the course and vulnerability of these nerves is important in diagnosing and treating upper arm injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis
Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:
Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.
Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.
Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.
Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.
Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.
Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe pain at night due to her osteoarthritis. She has been suffering from this condition for the past 12 years and had a total knee replacement surgery on her right knee last year, which significantly improved her pain. However, for the past two months, she has been experiencing excruciating pain in her left knee. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and peptic ulcer disease and is currently taking 4 g of paracetamol daily. She tried using topical capsaicin last month, which provided some relief, but she is now seeking alternative pain management options. The patient has normal liver function tests and no history of liver disease.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add codeine
Explanation:Pain Management Options for a Patient with Knee Osteoarthritis
When managing the pain of a patient with knee osteoarthritis, it is important to consider their medical history and current medication regimen. In this case, the patient is already taking non-opioids and topical capsaicin is not providing sufficient relief. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder, the next step would be to add a weak opioid such as codeine or tramadol.
Offering morphine modified-release would not be appropriate as it is a strong opioid and should only be considered after trying a weak opioid first. Aspirin and ibuprofen are not recommended due to the patient’s history of peptic ulcer disease.
While a total knee replacement may ultimately be necessary to alleviate the patient’s pain, a pharmacological approach should be attempted first. This will involve assessing the patient’s fitness for surgery and anesthesia before proceeding with any surgical intervention. By managing the patient’s pain with medication, their quality of life can be improved while they await further treatment options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
What would be your next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture
Explanation:Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy
Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion
A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.
Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)