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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Medication overuse headache
Correct Answer: Chronic tension headache
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of painful unilateral visual disturbance, ataxia, and sensory deficit. She is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) after undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and is started on steroid treatment, followed by disease-modifying therapy. Her disease is stable after six months, and she can manage her daily activities without significant problems. She used to drive a car but has not done so since her diagnosis. She is now curious about her driving situation.
What are the most appropriate steps to take regarding her driving circumstances?Your Answer: She must inform the DVLA and cannot drive for six months since her most recent relapse
Correct Answer: She must inform the DVLA and may continue to drive
Explanation:Driving with Multiple Sclerosis: Informing the DVLA
Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic neurological disorder that may affect vehicle control due to impaired coordination and muscle strength. It is essential to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) upon diagnosis. The official guidance states that patients with MS may continue to drive as long as safe vehicle control is maintained. However, it is necessary to update the DVLA if circumstances change. There is no arbitrary timeframe for inability to drive, and it is assessed individually based on the state of the patient’s chronic disease. It is not appropriate to base this on relapses as patients may relapse at different time periods and tend not to return to baseline function in relapsing-remitting MS. Failure to inform the DVLA can result in legal consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to inform the DVLA and follow their guidelines to ensure safe driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?Your Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased
Explanation:CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes
Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:
1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.
3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.
4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.
5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.
In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Typical absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.
Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.
To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache and nausea. He had been feeling fine in the days leading up to this incident. He had a medical history of hypertension and took regular medication for it. He did not smoke or drink alcohol.
Upon arrival at the Emergency department, the patient had a Glasgow coma scale score of 12/15 (motor 6, vocal 3, eyes 3) and nuchal rigidity. His blood pressure was 145/85 mmHg, pulse was 90 beats per minute and regular, and temperature was 37.1°C. Heart sounds were normal and the chest appeared clear.
During cranial nerve examination, a left dilated unreactive pupil with oculoparesis of the left medial rectus was observed. Fundoscopy showed no abnormalities. There were no obvious focal neurological signs on examining the peripheral nervous system, although both plantar responses were extensor.
A lumbar puncture was performed, revealing straw-colored fluid with the following results:
- Opening pressure: 15 cmH2O (normal range: 6-18)
- CSF white cell count: 6 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
- CSF red cell count: 1450 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
- CSF protein: 0.46 g/L (normal range: 0.15-0.45)
- Cytospin: Negative for cells
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:The Oculomotor Nerve and its Effects on Eye Movement and Pupil Size
The oculomotor nerve nucleus complex is located in the midbrain and is responsible for controlling the movement of several eye muscles. Motor neurons from this complex project to the ipsilateral medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, as well as the contralateral superior rectus. Additionally, a central nucleus innervates the levator palpebrae superioris bilaterally, so damage to this area can result in bilateral ptosis.
If the oculomotor nerve is damaged during its course, it can result in ipsilateral ptosis and restrict movement of the eye in certain directions. The effect on the pupil can vary depending on the location of the lesion. However, compression of the nerve, such as by a tumor or aneurysm, can result in an acute total third nerve palsy with a dilated unreactive pupil. This is because the parasympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the iris are carried on the outside of the nerve bundle, causing pupillary dilation early on.
Interestingly, third nerve lesions caused by infarction in patients over 50 years old with diabetes or hypertension often spare the pupil. This means that the pupil remains reactive despite the damage to the nerve. the effects of oculomotor nerve damage can help diagnose and treat various eye conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?Your Answer: Oxygen
Explanation:Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options
Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?Your Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation
Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:
Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.
Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.
Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.
While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe abscess
Explanation:Sinusitis and Brain Abscess
A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache that has been progressively worsening over the past two to three months. She also reports experiencing blurred vision. The patient has a history of depression, which she attributes to her weight problem and bad skin. However, she has been actively trying to address these issues by joining Weight Watchers and receiving treatment for her acne from her GP for the past four months. On examination, the patient is overweight and has moderately severe acne. She is afebrile, and there are no signs of nuchal rigidity. The oropharynx is benign, and the neurological examination is normal, except for blurred disc margins bilaterally and a limited ability to abduct the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), previously known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri, is a condition that typically affects young obese women. Other risk factors include the use of oral contraceptive pills, treatments for acne such as tetracycline, nitrofurantoin, and retinoids, as well as hypervitaminosis A. The condition is characterized by a severe headache, loss of peripheral vision, and impaired visual acuity if papilloedema is severe. Patients may also experience a reduction in colour vision and develop a CN VI palsy.
A CT scan is often normal, and the diagnosis is confirmed by finding an elevated CSF opening pressure of more than 20 cm H2O. CSF protein, glucose, and cell count will be normal. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing permanent vision loss. Therefore, if you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What are the characteristics of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
Your Answer: There is loss of temperature sensation ipsilateral to the lesion
Correct Answer: There is loss of motor function ipsilateral to the lesion
Explanation:Brown-Sequard Syndrome
Brown-Sequard syndrome is a condition that results in the loss of motor function on one side of the body and the loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side. This syndrome is typically caused by a penetrating injury to the spinal cord. Despite the severity of the injury, Brown-Sequard syndrome has a relatively good prognosis compared to other incomplete spinal cord syndromes.
To summarise, Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterised by a specific set of symptoms that occur as a result of a spinal cord injury. While it can be a serious condition, it is important to note that it has a better prognosis than other incomplete spinal cord syndromes. the symptoms and causes of Brown-Sequard syndrome can help individuals better manage and cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?Your Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Vagus
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been getting worse over the last three months and have now become so severe that she is unable to work. She has no history of any medical conditions.
During the examination, the patient appears pale. The only notable finding is a strange involuntary movement of her fingers when she closes her eyes. Her blood film shows the presence of multi-lobed neutrophils.
What clinical feature might be observed in this patient?Your Answer: Oral ulcers
Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhage
Explanation:Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Dorsal Column Signs
This patient is presenting with megaloblastic anaemia and dorsal column signs, specifically pseudoathetosis due to loss of proprioceptive input from the hands. These symptoms suggest a possible vitamin B12 deficiency, which may also be indicated by the presence of multilobed neutrophils and retinal haemorrhages. While absent ankle jerks and extensor plantar reflex are common in B12 deficiency, cerebellar symptoms and hemiplegia are not typically associated with this condition. Instead, these symptoms may be indicative of multiple sclerosis, which can also present with dorsal column signs. Glossitis or beefy tongue may be present in B12 deficiency, along with other oral features like angular stomatitis or cheilitis in cases of multiple vitamin deficiencies. While retinal haemorrhage is a rare manifestation of B12 deficiency, other rare features may include optic atrophy, generalized hyperpigmentation, and dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness on her feet for the past 2 days. During the examination, the GP observes weakness and loss of sensation in the muscles of her right lower limb, while her upper limbs and face show no sensory deficit or weakness. The GP refers her to the nearest stroke unit for further evaluation and treatment. A CT scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
Which vessel is the most probable culprit?Your Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Explanation:Identifying the Correct Artery in a Case of Peripheral Weakness
In cases of peripheral weakness, identifying the correct artery involved is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. In this case, the weakness is on the right side, with involvement of the lower limb but not the upper limb or face. This suggests a problem with the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch, which supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.
Other potential arteries that could be involved include the left middle cerebral artery, which would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties. The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is unlikely, as it would be associated with left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb. The right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would result in visual field defects and contralateral weakness in both upper and lower limbs, as well as contralateral loss of sensation, which does not match the current presentation. The left posterior cerebral artery is also unlikely, as the upper limb is spared and there are no visual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?
Your Answer: Echocardiography
Correct Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography
Explanation:Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis
Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing early signs of Alzheimer's disease, which her mother was diagnosed with at a young age. She reports frequently misplacing her phone and struggling to recall names of colleagues she has worked with for years. She wants to learn more about the initial clinical features of the disease to see if they align with her symptoms.
What is a typical clinical characteristic of the early stage of Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer: Episodic confusion
Correct Answer: Retention of executive function
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Executive function, which involves planning, reasoning, and problem-solving, is typically retained in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. However, in subcortical dementias like Lewy body disease (LBD), patients often lose this cognitive skill early on. Frontotemporal dementia, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with impulsivity and disinhibition, as well as personality changes. Episodic confusion is a hallmark of LBD, where patients may have good and bad days. Finally, bradykinesia and rigidity are signs of parkinsonism, which can be seen in both LBD and Parkinson’s disease. Understanding these different symptoms can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?
Your Answer: 6 months after onset of symptoms
Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.
For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.
However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.
For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.
Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?
Your Answer: MRI
Explanation:Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?
Your Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space
Explanation:Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture
The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.
It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol
Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.
For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.
Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.
Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.
High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.
Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes the cranial cap and meninges, mobilises the brain and cuts the spinal cord just below the foramen magnum to remove the brain from the cranial cavity. On inspection of the brainstem, she notes that there are a number of nerves emerging from the brainstem.
Which of the following is true of the emergence of the cranial nerves?Your Answer: The trigeminal nerve emerges from the pons close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle
Explanation:Cranial Nerve Emergence Points in the Brainstem
The brainstem is a crucial part of the central nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The brainstem also serves as the origin for many of the cranial nerves, which are responsible for controlling various sensory and motor functions of the head and neck. Here are the emergence points of some of the cranial nerves in the brainstem:
– Trigeminal nerve (V): Emerges from the lateral aspect of the pons, close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle.
– Abducens nerve (VI): Emerges anteriorly at the junction of the pons and the medulla.
– Trochlear nerve (IV): Emerges from the dorsal aspect of the midbrain, between the crura cerebri. It has the longest intracranial course of any cranial nerve.
– Hypoglossal nerve (XII): Emerges from the brainstem lateral to the pyramids of the medulla, anteromedial to the olive.
– Vagus nerve (X): Rootlets emerge posterior to the olive, between the pyramid and the olive of the medulla.Knowing the emergence points of these cranial nerves is important for understanding their functions and for diagnosing any potential issues or disorders that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in his right elbow area. He reports falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched arm.
During the examination of the affected limb, the radial pulse appears normal. The patient experiences weakness in finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits, with the index and middle fingers showing particular weakness. The patient has no feeling in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Finger extension and abduction remain unaffected.
Which of these findings is most likely to be linked to this injury?Your Answer: Persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when the boy attempts to make a fist
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Injuries in the Hand: Symptoms and Causes
When a child falls on their outstretched hand, it can result in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. This type of injury can damage the brachial artery and median nerve, leading to symptoms such as persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when attempting to make a fist. Loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three digits and weakness of finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints are also common with median nerve injury. Additionally, the inability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers (known as the ‘hand of benediction’) is caused by loss of innervation of the first and second lumbrical muscles. Other symptoms of nerve injuries in the hand include loss of thumb adduction, loss of sensation over the medial border of the hand, loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger, and loss of function of the hypothenar muscles. Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help with early diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries in the hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?
Your Answer: Right lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Correct Answer: Right L5 root
Explanation:Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb
The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.
Right L5 Root Lesion
A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.
Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.
Right Femoral Nerve Lesion
A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.
Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.
Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion
The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.
In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: MND commonly affects young men
Correct Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex
Explanation:Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.
Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Bipolar
Correct Answer: Afferent
Explanation:Afferent Neurones
Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.
Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.
In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local Emergency Department with sudden loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of his visual field in both eyes. A CT scan of his head reveals an area of infarction in his brain, leading to a diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke. Which blood vessel is most likely occluded?
Your Answer: Left ophthalmic artery
Correct Answer: Right middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Effects of Cerebral Artery Occlusions on Vision
The brain’s interpretation of visual information is a complex process that involves multiple pathways and structures. The occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments.
Right Middle Cerebral Artery
The right middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the right superior optic radiation. An infarction in this area can cause contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia, which is the loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of the visual field of both eyes.Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
An occlusion of the left anterior cerebral artery can lead to complete loss of vision in the left eye due to optic nerve ischaemia.Left Posterior Cerebral Artery
A left posterior cerebral artery infarct can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia, which is the loss of the medial half of the left eye’s visual field and the lateral half of the right eye visual field.Right Vertebral Artery
The right vertebral artery supplies blood to the basilar artery and contributes blood to many anastomotic vessels. An occlusion in this area can result in unpredictable outcomes.Left Ophthalmic Artery
An occlusion of the left ophthalmic artery can cause complete vision loss of the ipsilateral eye due to infarction of the ipsilateral optic nerve, similar to the possible ocular effects of an anterior cerebral artery infarct.In conclusion, the occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments, and understanding these effects can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of stroke patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?Your Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
Explanation:Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.
Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.
It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia
Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.
Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.
To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural instability, frequent falls and cognitive decline. He exhibits hypomania, bradykinesia of the right upper limb, brisk reflexes, especially on the right-hand side, occasional myoclonus and a shuffling gait. He is unable to imitate basic hand gestures with his right hand. During the examination, the patient displays some sensory loss and apraxia.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sporadic Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)
Correct Answer: Corticobasal syndrome
Explanation:Neurological Disorders and Their Characteristics
Corticobasal Syndrome: This rare progressive neurological disorder is characterized by asymmetrical cortical syndrome, gait unsteadiness, falls, parkinsonism, apraxia, and alien limb syndrome. Unfortunately, there is no known treatment for this disorder, and the prognosis is poor, with a life expectancy of 6-8 years from diagnosis.
Supranuclear Gaze Palsy: This Parkinson’s plus syndrome presents with symmetrical parkinsonism, slow saccades (especially vertical), and a limitation of eye movements.
Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease: While this disease may present as asymmetrical at onset, it tends to involve both sides after 6 years. The presence of cortical signs such as hyperreflexia, apraxia, and myoclonus would be atypical.
Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common pathology in patients with cognitive decline, but it presents with prominent cognitive decline, and basal ganglia features are atypical.
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD): This rapidly progressive disorder leads to akinetic mutism and death within a year, with a median of 6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy
His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-Barré syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Correct
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The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)
Explanation:Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:
Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.
2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.
3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.
4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.
5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.
6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?
Your Answer: Still's disease
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.
Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.
In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity
The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?
Your Answer: Cefotaxime
Correct Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.
Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.
Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?
Your Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.
The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis of the upper and lower limbs and sensory disturbance. All symptoms are on the same side. Global aphasia is also noted on examination. CT brain is normal. An ischaemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is diagnosed.
What is the most likely vascular territory involved?Your Answer: Right middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Left middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Stroke and Their Symptoms
Strokes can occur when there is a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to brain cells. Different types of strokes can affect different areas of the brain, resulting in varying symptoms. Here are some examples:
– Left middle cerebral artery: This type of stroke can cause unilateral facial weakness, hemiplegia, and hemisensory loss. It can also lead to global aphasia, which is a language impairment that affects the dominant hemisphere of the brain (usually the left side). This occurs when the trunk of the left MCA is occluded, causing damage to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in the left perisylvian cortex.
– Right middle cerebral artery: A stroke in the right MCA can cause contralateral motor and sensory symptoms without speech disturbance.
– Basilar artery: This type of stroke can be particularly devastating, as it affects the brainstem and can lead to a locked-in state. Prognosis is poor.
– Right internal carotid artery: This is typically asymptomatic, as collateral circulation from the circle of Willis can compensate for the occlusion.
– Left vertebral artery: A stroke in the left vertebral artery can cause posterior circulation stroke, which can result in symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, gait disturbance, and vertigo.It’s important to recognize the symptoms of a stroke and seek medical attention immediately. Time is of the essence when it comes to treating strokes, as early intervention can help minimize damage to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
Where is the causative abnormality located?Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus
Explanation:Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.
Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.
Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?
Your Answer: The fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane
Correct Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon
Explanation:Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon
A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.
It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to ‘stare into space’. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Migraine
Correct Answer: Absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics
One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.
Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.
Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.
Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.
While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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