-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 54-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute left-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The pain is colicky and accompanied by nausea, but no fever or vomiting. The patient has a history of anxiety and depression and is currently taking sertraline. What is the recommended first-line analgesic for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IM diclofenac
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute renal colic includes the use of IM diclofenac, according to guidelines. The patient’s symptoms, such as sudden and severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and nausea, suggest renal calculi. NSAIDs, including diclofenac, are the first-line choice for analgesia in renal colic. Ibuprofen cannot be given intravenously, but IV paracetamol can be used if NSAIDs are not effective or contraindicated. Opioid analgesics should only be considered if both NSAIDs and IV paracetamol are ineffective or contraindicated, due to their side effects. Therefore, IV tramadol and oral morphine are not the first-line choice for analgesia.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.
Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.
Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.
What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?Your Answer: Arrange for practice nurse to administer chickenpox vaccination
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
What is the primary reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering her for 6 weeks. During the examination, she experiences pain on the radial side of the wrist when the thumb is forcefully adducted and flexed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:Inflammation of the tendons on the lateral side of the wrist and thumb leads to de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. To diagnose this condition, Finkelstein’s test can be performed by quickly deviating the hand medially. If there is a sharp pain along the distal radius, it is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 23-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his family for assessment. The patient recently graduated from university and has been struggling to adjust to post-graduate life. His family notes that he has always been a solitary person, preferring to spend his time in his room, playing video games and building models of his favourite characters. They had hoped that graduating from university would help him become more social. However, he has not made any new friends, and only his family is concerned about this. Instead of socializing, he continues to play video games alone in his room.
During the interview, he appears withdrawn and quiet. His emotional range is limited, and he does not show any clear signs of happiness or joy when discussing activities that he claims to enjoy. He denies experiencing any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no intention of harming himself or others. He claims that his sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration have not changed.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Disorders
Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is one of the disorders in Cluster A, also known as the weird cluster. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, preferring to work and play alone. However, they do not exhibit weird or magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder).
It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other disorders such as avoidant personality disorder, where patients are distressed by their social isolation, and schizoaffective disorder and schizophrenia, which both involve psychotic symptoms. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, clinicians can provide appropriate treatment and support for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left testicle that started four hours ago. Upon examination, his left testis is visibly swollen and extremely tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular Torsion Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient’s history and examination. To confirm this, it is essential to perform a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The symptoms and signs presented by the patient are highly indicative of testicular torsion, and it is crucial to address this condition promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct a thorough examination and perform the necessary tests to confirm the diagnosis. Once confirmed, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent further complications. It is essential to act quickly in such cases to avoid any long-term damage to the testicles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. She has a medical history of COPD, recurrent urinary tract infections, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Recently, she visited her general practitioner for a chest infection and was prescribed antibiotics and medications for symptom control. Additionally, she started taking medications for newly diagnosed hypertension. During her examination, there were no notable findings. However, her twelve lead ECG revealed a significantly prolonged QTc interval of 560ms. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this ECG abnormality?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Macrolides have the potential to cause prolongation of the QT interval, which may have been a contributing factor to the marked QT interval prolongation observed in this patient following recent use of clarithromycin. Cyclizine, doxycycline, and lercanidipine are not known to affect the QT interval.
Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Sophie is a 15-year-old who has visited her GP seeking advice on contraception. She discloses that she has been sexually active with a 15-year-old male partner for the past 3 months. Sophie has done her research on various contraceptive methods and expresses her interest in trying the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of depression due to childhood abuse and is currently receiving treatment from the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services. However, she reports feeling much better since starting her relationship with her partner. Sophie's parents are unaware of the situation, and she is unwilling to inform them. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe the COCP, providing there are no contraindications
Explanation:The Fraser guidelines state that if a child meets the criteria, they can be prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without parental knowledge or consent. It is important to maintain confidentiality and not breach it by discussing with the child’s parents. The child’s age or lack of consent for sexual intercourse should not affect their entitlement to contraception. While a full STI screen and pregnancy test are important aspects of holistic care, they are not necessary to prescribe the COCP. The GMC’s guidance on contraception, abortion, and STIs for those aged 0-18 also allows for providing such advice and treatment to young people under 16 without parental knowledge or consent if certain criteria are met.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumour Markers: An Overview
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:
CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.
AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.
CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.
CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.
CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to fever, neck stiffness, and altered Glasgow coma scale. The medical team suspects acute bacterial meningitis.
What would be the most suitable antibiotic option for this patient?Your Answer: Cefotaxime
Explanation:Empirical Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bacterial Meningitis
Patients aged 16-50 years presenting with acute bacterial meningitis are most likely infected with Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae. The most appropriate empirical antibiotic choice for this age group is cefotaxime alone. However, if the patient has been outside the UK recently or has had multiple courses of antibiotics in the last 3 months, vancomycin may be added due to the increase in penicillin-resistant pneumococci worldwide.
For infants over 3 months old up to adults of 50 years old, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic. If the patient is under 3 months or over 50 years old, amoxicillin is added to cover for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, although this is rare. Ceftriaxone can be used instead of cefotaxime.
Once the results of culture and sensitivity are available, the antibiotic choice can be modified for optimal treatment. Benzylpenicillin is usually first line, but it is not an option in this case. It is important to choose the appropriate antibiotic treatment to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)