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Question 1
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You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.
The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.
What is the most important first drug intervention?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Vasculitis
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy
A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.
In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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You are requested by the medical registrar to assess a 65-year-old man who has been admitted to the hospital with fevers, pleuritic chest pain, and a productive cough. The emergency department has initiated initial management, but the registrar wants you to ensure that all the necessary investigations recommended by the surviving sepsis guidelines have been requested. The patient's vital signs are HR 110 regular, BP 80/50 mmHg, O2 90% room air. Currently, a complete blood count, blood cultures, renal and liver function tests have been ordered, and intravenous fluids have been started. What other investigation is required according to the sepsis guidelines?
Your Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Early Goal-Directed Therapy for Severe Sepsis and Septic Shock
Patients with severe sepsis and septic shock have a high mortality risk. However, early goal-directed therapy can significantly reduce mortality rates. This therapy involves two bundles of care that should be performed within six and 24 hours. Hospitals have integrated these bundles into their policies, and all clinicians should be aware of the necessary investigations and management steps.
Routine blood tests are always performed in sick patients, but it is important to have a robust set of investigations. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and C reactive protein are often performed, but the commonly overlooked test is a serum lactate. Raised lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion, and tracking trends in lactate can guide the clinician in resuscitating the patient. Clotting and D-dimer tests are also relevant investigations, as derangement of these parameters could indicate evolving disseminated intravascular coagulation. Troponin is classically performed for myocardial infarction, but it may be raised in other conditions. Cultures of sputum are often helpful to isolate the precipitant, but this is a lower priority in the investigation hierarchy.
Within the first six hours, five sections should be completed: measure serum lactate, take blood cultures prior to antibiotics, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within three hours of ED attendance, give 20 ml/kg crystalloid and apply vasopressors if hypotensive and/or serum lactate is greater than 4, and place a central line and aim for CVP greater than 8 and ScvO2 greater than 70 if ongoing hypotension. Though the latter parts of this bundle can appear daunting to junior doctors, appropriate early blood sampling, antibiotic delivery, and fluid resuscitation can make a significant difference to patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a 24-hour history of epigastric pain that radiates to his back and vomiting. The doctors diagnose him with pancreatitis after his serum amylase levels come back at 2000. They also run some additional blood tests and find the following results:
- WCC: 22 ×109/L (Neutrophils: 17.2)
- Hb: 155 g/L
- Urea: 18.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 105 μmol/L
- AST: 250 IU
- LDH: 654 IU
- Calcium: 2.3 mmol/L
- Albumin: 38 g/L
- Glucose: 7.5 mmol/L
- PaO2: 9.9 KPa
What is the Modified Glasgow score for this patient?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Glasgow Score as a Predictor of Pancreatitis Severity
The Glasgow score is a tool used to predict the severity of pancreatitis. It is based on several factors, which can be remembered using the mnemonic PANCREAS. These factors include low PaO2 levels, age over 55 years, high neutrophil count, low calcium levels, impaired renal function, elevated enzymes such as AST and LDH, low albumin levels, and high blood sugar levels. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score can help determine the severity of the pancreatitis.
For example, a patient who is over 55 years old, has high neutrophil count, impaired renal function, and elevated enzymes would score a total of 4 points. The higher the score, the more severe the pancreatitis is likely to be. UK guidelines recommend that a severity score be calculated for every patient with acute pancreatitis to help guide their management and treatment.
In summary, the Glasgow score is a useful tool for predicting the severity of pancreatitis based on several factors. By calculating a patient’s score, healthcare providers can better manage and treat their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl and her mother rush to the Emergency department due to the girl's sudden onset of breathlessness and facial puffiness. The girl has a history of eczema and is currently taking oral contraceptives. Despite being well prior to this incident, she is now visibly distressed and experiencing laboured breathing with stridor but no wheezing. What is the most probable reason for her breathlessness?
Your Answer: Angio-oedema
Explanation:Noisy Breathing and Atopy in Adolescents
The presence of noisy breathing in an adolescent may indicate the possibility of stridor, which can be caused by an allergic reaction even in an otherwise healthy individual. The history of atopy, or a tendency to develop allergic reactions, further supports the diagnosis of angio-oedema. The sudden onset of symptoms also adds to the likelihood of this diagnosis.
While asthma is a possible differential diagnosis, it typically presents with expiratory wheezing. However, if the chest is silent, it may indicate a severe and life-threatening form of asthma. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of noisy breathing and atopy in adolescents to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history of lethargy, fever, and a sore throat. The nurse reports that his breathing is harsh and high pitched. His vital signs show a temperature of 39.4°C and an elevated respiratory and heart rate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial tracheitis
Explanation:Addressing Stridor and Other Airway Sounds
Added airway sounds, particularly stridor, should always be treated as a medical emergency. Stridor is a sign of a compromised upper airway and is heard predominantly on inspiration. It is important to note that stridor is not a diagnosis but a symptom, and the underlying cause must be identified urgently. The patient’s medical history is crucial in determining the correct diagnosis as all the causes listed above can present with stridor.
In children, croup caused by the parainfluenza 1 virus is the most common reason for stridor. However, stridor in adults should prompt the clinician to consider other diagnoses. If the patient appears toxic with worsening lethargy, pyrexia, and overt deterioration of the upper airway, bacterial tracheitis is the most likely cause. Diphtheria can also cause stridor, but immunization programs have reduced its incidence in the western world.
Laryngospasm is a common cause of stridor in adults, but the clinician must seek a relevant precipitant. Exposure to smoke and toxic fumes in the patient’s history should raise a high degree of suspicion and prompt the clinician to involve the anaesthetic teams in securing the patient’s airway. Foreign body aspiration and anaphylaxis are both life-threatening conditions that must be considered and excluded. The duration and onset of the stridor will be a key factor in determining the diagnosis. An abrupt onset with a history of eating nuts or chewing on a pen lid or plastic bead is often present in foreign body aspiration, while anaphylaxis may have a defined food precipitant and a more rapid onset than other conditions.
Overall, addressing stridor and other airway sounds requires urgent attention and a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient has just been administered intravenous ceftazidime. Suddenly, the patient experiences flushing and wheezing, and their blood pressure drops to 80/40 mmHg. What is the most suitable immediate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg of 1:1,000 IM
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Anaphylaxis and Non-Shockable Cardiac Arrest
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to stop whatever caused the reaction. After that, the patient should be given oxygen, fluids, and adrenaline. It is important to check the concentration of adrenaline, especially in high-pressure situations. Adrenaline can be administered intramuscularly or subcutaneously at a dose of 0.5 mg of 1:1,000. However, intravenous administration of adrenaline can be hazardous unless it is appropriately diluted.
In the case of a non-shockable cardiac arrest, the treatment involves the intravenous administration of adrenaline at a dose of 0.5mg of 1:10,000. It is important to note that the concentration of adrenaline used in the treatment of anaphylaxis is different from that used in the treatment of non-shockable cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the appropriate concentration of adrenaline to use in each situation. Proper administration of adrenaline can be life-saving in both anaphylaxis and non-shockable cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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For which group is hepatitis B vaccination not typically recommended due to their low risk status?
Your Answer: Frequent travellers
Explanation:Hepatitis B and Travel: the Risks
Frequent travel alone does not pose a significant risk for contracting hepatitis B. However, certain behaviors during travel can increase the likelihood of infection. These include injecting drugs, participating in relief work, engaging in sexual activity, and contact sports. If a traveler is involved in any of these activities, they should consider getting vaccinated against hepatitis B.
It is important to note that hepatitis B can also be transmitted vertically, from mother to child. Therefore, individuals who work closely with children, such as foster carers, should also be vaccinated regardless of the child’s HBV status. By the risks associated with hepatitis B and taking appropriate precautions, travelers can protect themselves and others from this potentially serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.
After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.
What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her mother.
The girl is experiencing elbow pain and is refusing to use her arm. Her mother reports that she was lifted up by her outstretched arms earlier in the day.
What is the probable diagnosis for this case?Your Answer: Fracture of the lateral epicondyle
Correct Answer: Subluxation of the radial head
Explanation:Subluxation of the Radial Head in Children
Subluxation of the radial head, also known as pulled elbow, is a frequent injury in young children. It occurs when the arm is pulled directly, causing the radial head to dislocate from its ligament. The child may experience pain in the elbow and have limited movement in supination and extension. They may also refuse to use their arm.
Fortunately, a diagnosis can often be made without the need for an x-ray if the history is typical. Treatment involves providing pain relief and manipulating the elbow by supination while it is flexed at a 90° angle. With proper care, most children recover quickly from this injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe headache accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Upon examination, the patient appears distressed with a temperature of 37.5°C and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. His blood pressure is 146/88 mmHg. The patient exhibits marked neck stiffness and photophobia, but neurological examination is otherwise normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Symptoms, Complications, and Diagnosis
Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden and severe headache accompanied by meningeal irritation. Patients may also experience a slightly elevated temperature and localising signs with larger bleeds. Other symptoms include neurogenic pulmonary oedema and ST segment elevation on the ECG. Complications of SAH include recurrent bleeding, vasospasm, and stroke. Delayed complications may also arise, such as hydrocephalus due to the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Imaging may not always detect the bleed, especially if it is small. Therefore, CSF analysis is crucial in suspected cases, with the presence of red blood cells confirming the diagnosis. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if SAH is suspected, as prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and skin flap after injuring her leg on furniture at home. She is currently taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. What is the optimal approach to managing this injury?
Your Answer: Clean then suture the laceration with a 4/0 non-absorbable suture
Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration
Explanation:Management of Pretibial Lacerations in Different Patient Populations
In managing Pretibial lacerations, the approach may vary depending on the patient’s age and skin condition. For young patients with good skin, suturing with non-absorbable sutures is usually done and removed after seven to 10 days. However, for elderly patients with thin skin or those taking warfarin or steroids, suturing may not be possible due to fragile skin. In this case, the wound is cleaned thoroughly and steristripped meticulously to promote skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and light bandage are applied, and the patient is advised to elevate the leg.
After a week, patients should be reviewed to monitor the wound’s progress. It is important to note that Pretibial lacerations may take several months to heal, and some may require skin grafting procedures. By tailoring the management approach to the patient’s specific needs, optimal wound healing can be achieved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is the least likely to worsen bronchospasm in severe asthma?
Your Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Medications for Asthmatics
Alfentanil is a type of painkiller that belongs to the opioid family. It is commonly used during the induction of anesthesia and is considered safe for asthmatics. Adenosine, on the other hand, is a medication that can cause wheezing and bronchospasm, making it unsuitable for asthmatics. It can also cause other unpleasant side effects and is therefore contraindicated.
Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that should not be given to patients with a history of asthma or those whose symptoms have worsened following aspirin. This is because it can trigger an asthma attack and worsen the symptoms. Labetalol, a beta-blocker, is also contraindicated for asthmatics.
Morphine is another medication that should be used with caution in asthmatics. It can release histamine, which can make bronchospasm worse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess a 75-year-old male who was admitted to the cardiac care unit five hours ago due to chest pain. The patient has been given morphine, aspirin, clopidogrel, enoxaparin, and metoprolol. However, he has recently experienced a sudden worsening of chest pain, and his heart rate has dropped to 30 beats per minute. His other vital signs are BP 140/85 mmHg, O2 98%, and RR 18. An ECG has been conducted, revealing complete heart block. What is the most probable cause of this sudden development?
Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Inferior myocardial infarction
Explanation:Managing Bradycardia in Patients with Myocardial Infarctions
Bradycardia is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention and should be managed according to the Resuscitation Council guidelines algorithm. Patients with myocardial infarctions are at a higher risk of developing associated arrhythmias, particularly those with inferior MIs, which can cause transient complete heart block due to the right coronary artery supplying the AV node. Although arrhythmogenic episodes are less common in other territory infarcts, they can still occur.
In this scenario, the patient has received ACS treatment, including morphine and a beta blocker, which should not cause a sustained or profound bradycardia at therapeutic dosages. However, it is important to check for iatrogenic errors, and drug charts should be closely inspected to identify any potential errors. If an overdose of morphine has occurred, naloxone should be administered urgently, while beta blocker overdoses may require large doses of glucagon to counteract their effects. Any drug errors should be documented on an incident report form as per local policy.
When managing bradycardia, the patient should be approached in an ABC fashion, and adverse features should be sought out. Four features that suggest decompensation include hypotension <90 systolic, loss of consciousness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. Atropine is the first-line drug, with aliquots of 500 mcg given up to 3 mg. Isoprenaline and adrenaline infusions are suggested as next-line treatments, but they may not be immediately available unless the patient is in a high dependency setting. Transcutaneous pacing should be readily available as an additional function on most defibrillator machines and is the next option if the patient continues to decompensate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.
His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:
pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
Base excess −4 (+/-2)
Oxygen saturation 89%
What is the most appropriate action for this man?Your Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation
Explanation:Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma
This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.
It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted. He states that he was hit in the nose, resulting in swelling, deformity, and a small nosebleed. He also reports difficulty breathing through his left nostril. Upon examination, there is no active bleeding, but there is some deviation of the nasal bones to the left and no septal haematoma. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Arrange an ENT follow up appointment for within the next one week
Explanation:Emergency Admission for Isolated Nasal Injuries
Isolated nasal injuries are a common occurrence that often presents in the Emergency department. However, emergency admission is rarely necessary for these cases. There are only three exceptions to this rule, which are patients with a septal haematoma, a compound nasal fracture, or associated epistaxis.
It is important to note that nasal bone x-rays are not required for diagnosis, as it can be determined entirely through clinical examination. For uncomplicated cases, patients are best reviewed after five days in the ENT clinic when associated swelling has subsided. This allows for a better assessment of whether manipulation of the fracture is necessary.
Traumatic epistaxis can be a serious complication and may require packing if there is active bleeding. It is crucial to monitor patients with this condition closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. Overall, while isolated nasal injuries are common, emergency admission is only necessary in specific cases, and proper diagnosis and management are essential for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
Temperature 36.2 °C
Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
Heart rate 112 bpm
Saturations 96% on room air
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?Your Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h
Explanation:Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance
Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is referred following a collapse at home. He is currently taking diclofenac for persistent low back pain. Upon examination, he appears pale and has a pulse of 110 beats per minute. His blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg while sitting and drops to 85/40 mmHg when standing. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: 24 ambulatory ECG
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination
Explanation:Syncopal Collapse and Possible Upper GI Bleed
This patient experienced a syncopal collapse, which is likely due to hypovolemia, as evidenced by her postural drop in blood pressure. It is possible that she had an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed caused by gastric irritation from her non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. A rectal examination that shows melaena would confirm this suspicion.
To determine the cause of her condition, a full blood count is necessary. Afterward, appropriate fluid resuscitation, correction of anemia, and an upper GI endoscopy should be performed instead of further cardiological or neurological evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.
She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.
On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.
Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.
What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?Your Answer: Administer intravenous naloxone 400 mcg then further doses of 200 mcg dependent on response
Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen
Explanation:The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out with her friends. According to her friends, she has been talking to herself about nonsensical things and appears agitated and restless. During the examination, it is noted that her reflexes are heightened and an electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ventricular ectopics. What type of substance abuse is suspected in this case?
Your Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:Ecstasy Overdose
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA, is a drug that stimulates the central nervous system. It can cause increased alertness, euphoria, extroverted behavior, and rapid speech. People who take ecstasy may also experience a lack of desire to eat or sleep, tremors, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. However, more severe intoxication can lead to excitability, agitation, paranoid delusions, hallucinations, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. In some cases, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias may also develop.
Severe cases of MDMA poisoning can result in hyperthermia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, hyponatremia, and even hepatic damage. In rare cases, amphetamine poisoning may lead to intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute cardiomyopathy, which can be fatal. Chronic amphetamine users may also experience hyperthyroxinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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