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Question 1
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer. The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase IIa
Correct Answer: Phase IIb
Explanation:Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (€˜definite dose-finding’ studies).
Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?
Your Answer: Level 3
Explanation:Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)
Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)
Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)
Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)
Level 5 – Expert opinion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Correct
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits. Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?
Your Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?
Your Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises
Explanation:The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.
Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.
At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.
The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.
An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Correct
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The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised. Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis. She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent. With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating. Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?
Your Answer: 7.3
Explanation:The following is the alveolar gas equation:
PAO2 = PiO2 ˆ’ PaCO2/R
Where:
PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:
PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa ˆ’ 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 ˆ’ 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 ˆ’ 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to acetylcholine?
Your Answer: Excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication causes cholinergic crisis
Explanation:Myasthenic and cholinergic crises are two crises which are similar in their clinical presentation.
Myasthenic crisis can be caused by:
-lack of acetylcholine,
-poor compliance with medication,
-infectionCholinergic crisis can be caused by excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication (mimicking organophosphate poisoning) causing excess acetylcholine.
Differentiation between the 2 crises is made by giving incremental doses of the short acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Edrophonium.
This increase acetylcholine levels and will make a myasthenic crisis better and a cholinergic crisis worse. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Correct
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The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes. Which pair is correct?
Your Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).
Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).
Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Correct
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The following results were obtained In a new drug trial: (Improved:Not improved) Placebo group 36: 26, Treatment group 44: 16. Regarding the statistical analysis or interpretation of the trial, one of these is true
Your Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.
Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.
There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.
Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer: A right to left shunt
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C. Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?
Your Answer: Pressure in the gas cylinder
Correct Answer: Density of the gas
Explanation:Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.
At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.
Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.
Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.
Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled. Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?
Your Answer: Dynamic zero-order response
Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response
Explanation:The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 14
Correct
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During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex. The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?
Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.
The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.
The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?
Your Answer: Etomidate
Correct Answer: Chloral hydrate
Explanation:Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.
Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas. Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.
Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4€“8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.
An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding soda lime?
Your Answer: The formation of calcium carbonate requires heat
Correct Answer: Silica is added to prevent disintegration of the granules
Explanation:Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and the remaining sodium hydroxide.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 †’ CaCO3 + H2O + heat
Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.
Silicated hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.
The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?
Your Answer: Is an alkaline solution
Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus
Explanation:Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.
It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.
It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.
It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.
Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A fast arrangements inductance is organized. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is ideally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic applied cricoid pressure of 10 N. Acceptance of anaesthesia is at that point carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy shows a review of grade 4. Three endeavours are made at putting a estimate 7 mm ID tracheal tube; two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy edge and bougie. Then one advance attempt is made employing a video laryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is starts to wear off. Oxygen immersion is 95%. Which one of the following treatment option is the another most suitable arrange of action?
Your Answer: Insert a 2 generation supraglottic airway
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Firstly, always call for an early help. This understanding is at hazard of gastro-oesophageal reflux, the reason a fast arrangement acceptance has been picked for within the first place. The patient isn’t pregnant and the critical surgery isn’t immediate.
The scheme A is to perform a fast arrangement acceptance under ideal conditions and effectively secure the respiratory tract with a tracheal tube.
Whilst no more than three attempts with coordinate laryngoscope (+ 1 endeavour with video laryngoscope) ought to be made to intubate the trachea, the reality is that the suxamethonium is wearing off ought to be borne in mind. One step is to make certain satisfactory neuromuscular blockade at this level, if oxygenation can be kept up by bag-mask ventilation, this might involve the administration of a non-depolarising relaxant. As the surgery isn’t prompt there should be a baseline to stop scheme A at intubation and resort to scheme B.
An elective procedure can be planned at that time.
The first most vital step is to report a failed intubation as this will halt you from continuing to intubate and notify your collaborator that scheme A has failed. Keeping up oxygenation and anaesthesia is additionally critical earlier to the initiation of scheme B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. If there’s collapse of oxygenation and failure to preserve satisfactory ventilation, then insert a supraglottic airway. Plan D takes after the affirmation of a CICO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis. Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?
Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.
On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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