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Question 1
Correct
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You are reviewing a physically fit 78 year old gentleman in the urology outpatient clinic. He initially presented to his GP with an episode of frank haematuria. Urinalysis revealed ongoing microscopic haematuria. Following referral to the urologist, a contrast MRI scan reveals a solitary low risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)
Explanation:Management Options for Low Risk Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Tumours
When a patient is diagnosed with a low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumour, the primary treatment option is surgical resection using the transurethral method. This procedure is likely to be curative, but a single dose of intravesical mitomycin C may be offered as adjunctive therapy. Routine follow-up and surveillance cystoscopies are necessary to monitor for recurrence.
A radical cystectomy and urostomy formation are reserved for patients with confirmed muscle invasive bladder tumours. Radiotherapy alone is only considered for those who are unfit for a radical cystectomy and have high risk or muscle invasive tumours. Palliative management is not appropriate for patients with curable tumours.
Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the treatment of choice for high-risk lesions, but it is not appropriate for low risk tumours. Therefore, surgical resection remains the primary management option for low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary retention. You select a 6-Fr catheter.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the size of this catheter?Your Answer: The size of the internal drainage canal of the catheter is approximately 24mm
Correct Answer: The external circumference of the catheter is approximately 24mm
Explanation:Understanding Catheter Sizes: A Guide to the French Gauge System
Catheters are medical devices used to drain urine from the bladder when a patient is unable to do so naturally. The size of a catheter is an important factor in ensuring proper placement and function. The French gauge system is commonly used to describe catheter sizes, with the size in French units roughly equal to the circumference of the catheter in millimetres.
It is important to note that the French size only describes the external circumference of the catheter, not its length or internal diameter. A catheter that is too large can cause discomfort and irritation, while one that is too small can lead to kinking and leakage.
For male urethral catheterisation, a size 14-Fr or 16-Fr catheter is typically appropriate. Larger sizes may be recommended for patients with haematuria or clots. Paediatric sizes range from 3 to 14-Fr.
In summary, understanding the French gauge system is crucial in selecting the appropriate catheter size for each patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Prostate cancer
Correct Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.
Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.
In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old postal worker presents with a two-day history of increasing right-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The patient also reports experiencing frank haematuria. The patient has had a similar episode before and was previously diagnosed with a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan confirms the presence of a renal calculi on the right side. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Renal Stones
Renal stones are a common medical condition that can cause significant discomfort and pain. Understanding the risk factors associated with renal stones can help in their prevention and management. Hyperparathyroidism is a known cause of renal stones, and patients presenting with urinary stones should have their calcium, phosphate, and urate levels measured to exclude common medical risk factors. A low sodium diet is recommended as high sodium intake can lead to hypercalcemia and stone formation. Bisoprolol use may cause renal impairment but is less likely to be associated with recurrent renal calculi. Contrary to popular belief, vitamin D excess rather than deficiency is associated with the formation of kidney stones. Finally, gout, rather than osteoarthritis, is a risk factor for renal stones due to the excess uric acid that can be deposited in the kidneys. By understanding these risk factors, patients and healthcare providers can work together to prevent and manage renal stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen (PSA), but a normal prostate on physical examination. He is later diagnosed with prostate cancer on biopsy.
What is the most common area of the prostate where this disease develops?Your Answer: The anterior fibromuscular stroma
Correct Answer: The peripheral zone
Explanation:Anatomy of the Prostate Gland and its Relation to Prostate Cancer
The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located in the male reproductive system. It is divided into several zones, each with its own unique characteristics and potential for developing prostate cancer.
The peripheral zone is the most common site for developing prostate carcinomas. It extends around the gland from the apex to the base and is located posterolaterally.
The central zone surrounds the ejaculatory duct apparatus and makes up the majority of the prostatic base.
The transition zone constitutes two small lobules that abut the prostatic urethra and is where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tends to originate. Carcinomas that originate in the transition zone have been suggested to be of lower malignant potential compared to those in the peripheral zone.
The anterior fibromuscular stroma is the most anterior portion of the gland and is formed by muscle cells intermingled with dense connective tissue. The chance of malignancy occurring in this area is low, but asymmetrical hypertrophy of the anterior fibromuscular stroma can mimic the presence of prostate cancer.
The posterior capsule is made of connective tissue and is usually not the primary origin of prostate cancer. The cancer usually arises in the peripheral zone and may then extend through the capsule as it progresses.
Understanding the anatomy of the prostate gland and its relation to prostate cancer can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular prostate exams and screenings are important for maintaining prostate health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Rectum
Explanation:Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe, sharp, colicky pain in the right iliac fossa, radiating to the right loin and her right labia. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago.
Which of the following would be most useful as an initial investigation?Your Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Medical Procedures and Conditions: A Brief Overview
Urine Dipstick
In cases of suspected renal colic, a urine dipstick should be performed to support the diagnosis and rule out a urinary tract infection. Microscopic haematuria is a common indicator of renal stones.
Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
DPL is a surgical diagnostic procedure used to detect free-floating fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually blood. It is now performed less frequently due to the increased use of other imaging modalities such as FAST and CT.
Blood Sugar Levels
Hypoglycaemia symptoms occur when blood sugar levels fall below 4 mmol/l. Symptoms include hunger, trembling, sweating, confusion, and difficulty concentrating. However, the history provided does not suggest hypoglycaemia or diabetes.
Rectal Examination
Digital rectal examination is commonly used to assess the prostate, detect rectal bleeding, and investigate constipation, changes in bowel habit, and problems with urinary or faecal continence. In exceptional circumstances, it may be used to detect the uterus and cervix.
Vaginal Examination
Speculum vaginal examination is commonly used to diagnose pregnancy, assess gestational age, detect abnormalities in the genital tract, investigate vaginal discharge, examine the cervix, and take cervical cytology smears.
Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)
UTIs are caused by the presence of bacteria in the urinary tract and can affect the bladder, prostate, or kidneys. Escherichia coli is the most common cause. Abacterial cystitis, or the urethral syndrome, is a type of UTI that does not involve bacteriuria. Complicated and uncomplicated UTIs are differentiated by the presence or absence of renal tract and function abnormalities.
Overview of Common Medical Procedures and Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old trans female patient contacts her GP for a telephone consultation to discuss contraception options. She was assigned male at birth and is currently receiving treatment from the gender identity clinic, taking oestradiol and goserelin. Although she plans to undergo surgery in the future, she has not done so yet. She is currently in a relationship with a female partner and engages in penetrative sexual intercourse. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications apart from those prescribed by the GIC. What advice should she receive regarding contraception?
Your Answer: The patient's partner should use hormonal contraception
Correct Answer: The patient should use condoms
Explanation:While patients assigned male at birth who are undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone may experience a decrease or cessation in sperm production, it is not a reliable method of contraception. Therefore, it is important to advise the use of condoms as a suitable option for contraception. It is incorrect to suggest that a vasectomy is the only option, as condoms are also a viable choice. Additionally, recommending that the patient’s partner use hormonal contraception is not appropriate, as advice should be given directly to the patient.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a testicular lump that has been present for a few weeks and is gradually getting bigger. He has no history of trauma and is not experiencing any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. During the examination, a solid 3 cm mass is found in the left testicle, along with widespread lymphadenopathy. The following are his blood test results:
Alpha-fetoprotein (αFP): 0.1 ng/ml (0-10 ng/ml)
Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (βHCG): 4,500 IU/l
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 375 IU/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Testicular germ cell tumour: pure seminoma
Explanation:Understanding Testicular Cancer and Tumours
Testicular cancer is a common malignancy affecting men aged 20-39 years, with a high overall 5-year survival rate of 95%. Serum tumour markers such as βHCG and LDH are used to aid diagnosis and monitor response to treatment and detect recurrent disease. Leydig and Sertoli cell tumours are classified as sex cord/gonadal stromal tumours and may produce excess testosterone or oestrogen. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) including yolk sac tumours, embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas and teratomas may produce αFP, while seminomas do not. Teratomas of the testicle, a type of germ cell tumour, secrete αFP in approximately 70% of cases. Understanding the different types of testicular cancer and tumours is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of difficulty initiating micturition and poor flow when passing urine. He reports waking up 2-3 times a night to urinate and has not experienced any changes in bowel habits. He denies any visible blood in his urine and is generally feeling well. There is no family history of prostate cancer. During digital rectal examination (DRE), a slightly enlarged and smooth prostate is detected. Urinalysis shows protein + but is negative for blood, ketones, glucose, nitrites, and leukocytes. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests all come back normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.3 ng/ml. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Arrange an urgent transrectal prostate biopsy
Correct Answer: Commence an a-1-antagonist
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that presents with obstructive lower urinary symptoms. Over time, irritative lower urinary tract symptoms can develop due to bladder outflow obstruction, detrusor hypertrophy, and a resulting overactive bladder. The examination typically reveals a smooth and symmetrically enlarged prostate gland, and a PSA level >1.5 indicates significant risk of progression of prostate enlargement.
There are several treatment options for BPH, depending on the severity of symptoms and prostate enlargement. Lifestyle adaptation, such as sensible fluid intake, reduction of caffeine and alcohol, and management of constipation, can often be effective. If symptoms are troublesome, treatment with an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin can be tried. If the prostate is significantly enlarged or PSA is >1.5, then finasteride, a 5a-reductase inhibitor that will shrink the prostate over time, can be added.
Anticholinergic medications like oxybutynin can be used to relieve urinary and bladder difficulties, but these are not typically used first line. Prostate biopsy is not always necessary, and contraindications include the surgical absence of a rectum or the presence of a rectal fistula.
Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been going on for 6 months. He has a BMI of 30 kg/m², a history of hypertension, and has been smoking for 35 years. He reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy.
What is the primary initial test that should be done for this patient's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: What to Test For
When a man presents with erectile dysfunction, it is important to test for reversible or modifiable risk factors. One common risk factor is diabetes, so all men should have a HbA1c or fasting blood glucose test. A lipid profile should also be done to calculate cardiovascular risk. Erectile dysfunction can be an early sign of cardiovascular disease, especially in patients with pre-existing risk factors such as hypertension, increased BMI, and smoking history. Additionally, a blood test for morning testosterone should be done.
However, a C-reactive protein test is not useful as a first-line test for erectile dysfunction. An ultrasound abdomen and urea and electrolyte tests are also not helpful in establishing an underlying cause. While an enlarged prostate may be associated with erectile dysfunction, a urine dip is not necessary if the patient has no symptoms of a urinary-tract infection. Overall, testing for diabetes and cardiovascular risk factors is crucial in the initial investigation of erectile dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his left testicle that has been gradually increasing over the past 72 hours. He appears to be in discomfort but is able to walk. Upon examination, his left testicle is tender to firm palpation. His vital signs are normal, and there is no redness or swelling. His abdominal examination is unremarkable. He reports dysuria and has recently started a new sexual relationship.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Immediate involvement of the on-call urologist to arrange exploration of the scrotum to exclude torsion
Correct Answer: Treat with ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Epididymo-orchitis: Choosing the Right Antibiotics
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that causes inflammation of the epididymis and testicles. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. When treating this condition, it is important to choose the right antibiotics based on the suspected causative organism.
In the case of a sexually transmitted infection, ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days is the recommended treatment. However, if an enteric organism is suspected, ciprofloxacin may be preferred.
It is important to note that pain relief alone is not sufficient and empirical treatment with antibiotics is advised. Additionally, immediate involvement of a urologist is necessary to rule out testicular torsion.
While hospital admission and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary in severe cases, stable patients with epididymo-orchitis do not require this level of intervention. By choosing the appropriate antibiotics and involving a urologist when necessary, patients can receive effective treatment for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?Your Answer: Calcium oxalate stones
Explanation:Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes
Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.
Calcium Oxalate Stones
Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.Uric Acid Stones
Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.Cystine Stones
Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.Calcium Carbonate Stones
These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.Magnesium Carbonate Stones
Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with severe scrotal pain that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. During the examination, he is visibly distressed and his scrotum appears red and tender. He cries out in agony when you try to touch or lift his left testicle. The right testicle appears normal. What test should you perform next?
Your Answer: X-ray
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Testicular Torsion: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. It is characterized by excruciating pain and tenderness in one testicle, which worsens when the testicle is raised. This condition typically affects young teenagers and is caused by an anatomical variant that allows the spermatic cord to wind around itself and cut off blood flow to the testicle. If left untreated for more than 4-6 hours, testicular necrosis can occur.
While orchitis and epididymitis can also cause testicular pain, they are much milder and can be differentiated from testicular torsion by the response to raising the testicle. MRI and X-ray are not helpful in diagnosing this condition, and ultrasound should not delay surgical intervention. Routine blood tests, such as CRP and WCC, may be performed, but surgery should not be delayed while awaiting results.
In summary, testicular torsion is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention to prevent testicular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?Your Answer: Age-related increase in oestradiol with possible prostate dihydrotestosterone sensitisation
Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary
Explanation:Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man
Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have organized a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for the past year. The results are as follows:
- Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
- pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
- Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
- Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
- Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
- Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
- Normal forms 5% (4% or more)
His partner is also undergoing investigations, and you plan on referring him to fertility services. What steps should be taken based on these semen analysis results?Your Answer: Repeat test in 1 month
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months
Explanation:If a semen sample shows abnormal results, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. Immediate retesting should only be considered if there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa, such as azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml. In this case, the man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia and a confirmatory test should be arranged after 3 months.
Understanding Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is a test that measures the quality and quantity of semen in a man’s ejaculate. To ensure accurate results, it is recommended that the sample be collected after a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 5 days of abstinence. It is also important to deliver the sample to the lab within 1 hour of collection.
The normal semen results include a volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of more than 7.2, a sperm concentration of more than 15 million per ml, morphology of more than 4% normal forms, motility of more than 32% progressive motility, and vitality of more than 58% live spermatozoa. However, it is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, and these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
Overall, semen analysis is an important tool in assessing male fertility and can provide valuable information for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness. Upon examination, there is mild swelling of the left scrotum with varices resembling a bag of worms in the overlying skin that appears dark red. Scrotal ultrasound confirms the presence of a varicocele on the left side. Which structure is most likely dilated in this patient?
Your Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
Correct Answer: Pampiniform plexus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Male Reproductive System
The male reproductive system is a complex network of organs and structures that work together to produce and transport sperm. Here are some key components of this system:
Pampiniform Plexus: This network of veins runs along the spermatic cord and drains blood from the scrotum. When these veins become dilated, it can result in a condition called varicocele, which may cause a bag of worms sensation in the scrotum.
Ductus Deferens: This tube-like structure is part of the spermatic cord and carries sperm and seminal fluid from the testis to the ejaculatory duct.
Processus Vaginalis: This structure can sometimes be present in the groin area and may communicate with the peritoneum. When it does, it can lead to a condition called hydrocele, where fluid accumulates in the scrotum.
Testicular Artery: This artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the testis. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the skin in the upper anterior part of the scrotum and innervates the cremaster muscle. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Understanding the anatomy of the male reproductive system can help in identifying and treating various conditions that may affect it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During the examination, the doctor notices an abnormality on the right side of the scrotum that feels like a bag of worms. The patient mentions that this has only been present for the past two months and there is no change in the examination when he lies down. What is the recommended next step?
Your Answer: Ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters and bladder
Explanation:Medical Imaging Recommendations for Suspected Left Renal Malignancy
Introduction:
When a patient presents with a left-sided varicocele, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying left renal malignancy. In this scenario, we will discuss the appropriate medical imaging recommendations for this suspected condition.Ultrasound of the Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder:
A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord, which is dependent on the spermatic vein. In some cases, a left-sided varicocele can be associated with a left renal malignancy. This occurs when a large left renal tumor compresses or invades the left renal vein, causing an obstruction to venous return and resulting in a varicocele. Therefore, an ultrasound of the kidneys is recommended to assess for any potential malignancy.Ultrasound of the Liver:
In this scenario, an ultrasound of the kidneys would be more useful than an ultrasound of the liver, as renal malignancy is suspected.Ultrasound of the Left Groin:
Signs and symptoms of an inguinal hernia include a bulge in the area on either side of the pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when the patient is upright, especially when coughing or straining. However, there are no signs of hernias on clinical examination in this case.Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the Whole Spine:
MRI of the whole spine is recommended in cases of potential cord compression. However, this is not clinically suspected in this scenario.Reassure:
If a left-sided varicocele does not drain when lying supine, it should be referred for ultrasound to rule out underlying malignancy. The new onset of the varicocele makes this more likely and therefore should be further investigated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months, he has been passing urine more often than usual and getting up at night to urinate. Given the man’s age, you suspect he might have symptoms related to an enlarged prostate.
Which of the following should be done first to confirm the first impression?Your Answer: Full urological history
Explanation:Assessing Prostate Enlargement: Diagnostic Tests and Treatment Options
To determine the presence and severity of prostate enlargement, a full urological history should be taken, with attention paid to obstructive and irritation symptoms. If enlargement is suspected, a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be done before rectal examination, as the latter can increase PSA levels. Tamsulosin may be prescribed as a first-line drug for mild cases, but a thorough history should be obtained before starting pharmacological treatment. Abdominal examination is not typically necessary for initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing problems with his care in the community. He is bed-bound with a spastic paraparesis. He is noted to have a permanent 14-gauge urinary catheter in situ and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The family informs the nursing staff that this has not been changed for some time. Your senior colleague wishes for the catheter to be replaced due to recurrent UTIs.
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate?Your Answer: A male chaperone is required
Correct Answer: A single dose of prophylactic gentamicin is advisable
Explanation:Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters
Introduction:
Permanent indwelling urinary catheters are commonly used in patients with urinary retention or incontinence. However, they can pose a risk of infection and other complications. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices when placing and maintaining these catheters.Prophylactic Gentamicin:
When replacing a permanent catheter, it is recommended to administer a single dose of prophylactic gentamicin to prevent infection.Regular Replacement:
It is essential to have measures in place for regular routine replacement of permanent catheters. This is because they are a foreign body and can be a portal of entry for infection. Urinary sepsis in these patients can be devastating and fatal.Same-Sized Catheter:
When replacing a catheter, it is not necessary to change the size unless there are symptoms of catheter bypass. Increasing the size can cause pain and trauma.Local Anaesthetic Gel:
Even if a patient has paraparesis, local anaesthetic gel must be used during catheter insertion to prevent pain.Chaperone:
It is good practice to offer a chaperone during any intimate examination/procedure. The patient may accept or decline a chaperone. If a chaperone is required, they do not have to be a man as long as there is consent from the patient.Regular Replacement Schedule:
Long-term catheters require changing every 12 weeks due to the design of the catheter and the risk of infection. This can be done in the community by district nurses.Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a history of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle.
On examination, there is a firm lump lying in the body of the left testicle. His body mass index is 27. There are a few left-sided inguinal lymph nodes palpable. You suspect testicular cancer.
Which of the following findings on history and examination makes this provisional diagnosis more likely?Your Answer: History of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a serious condition that can have life-altering consequences if not detected and treated early. One of the main risk factors for this type of cancer is a history of undescended testes, which increases the risk significantly. Additionally, men with a high body mass index may have a lower risk of developing testicular cancer.
It’s important to note that the presence or absence of tenderness in the testicles does not necessarily indicate the presence of cancer. However, any man who notices a lump or mass in the body of the testicle should seek urgent medical attention to rule out the possibility of cancer.
In terms of metastasis, testicular cancer commonly spreads to the para-aortic lymph nodes rather than the inguinal nodes. By understanding these risk factors and symptoms, men can take proactive steps to protect their health and detect any potential issues early on.
Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she displays tenderness in her left loin. A CT-KUB is conducted, revealing the presence of a renal tract calculus in her left kidney. Where is the most frequent location for this condition?
Your Answer: Renal pelvis
Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ)
Explanation:The Most Common Sites for Urinary Calculi: Understanding the Locations and Symptoms
Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can occur in various locations within the renal tract. The three most common sites are the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ), within the ureter at the pelvic brim, and the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ), with the latter being the most frequent location. Stones obstructing the PUJ present with mild to severe deep flank pain without radiation to the groin, irritative voiding symptoms, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, and stranguria. On the other hand, stones within the ureter cause abrupt, severe colicky pain in the flank and ipsilateral lower abdomen, radiation to the testicles or vulvar area, and intense nausea with or without vomiting. While the renal pelvis and mid-ureter are also possible sites for urinary calculi, they are less common. Stones passed into the bladder are mostly asymptomatic but can rarely cause positional urinary retention. Understanding the locations and symptoms of urinary calculi can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms and no abdominal pain and is generally healthy. He has been in a long-term monogamous relationship and denies any history of trauma. Examination of his scrotum and penis is unremarkable, and his prostate is normal and non-tender upon digital rectal examination. Urinalysis results are within normal limits, and there is no family history of cancer.
What is the most appropriate next step, in addition to obtaining a urine sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivities?Your Answer: Arrange a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
Correct Answer: Reassure him that this symptom is not a sign of anything serious but ask him to return if he has >3 episodes or the problem persists for over a month
Explanation:Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually not a cause for concern in men under 40 years old. The most common causes are trauma, urinary tract infection (especially prostatitis), and sexually transmitted infection. However, it is important to rule out cancer through appropriate physical examination. If the symptom persists for over a month or there are more than three episodes, referral is recommended, especially for men over 40 years old. While reassurance is appropriate, patients should be encouraged to seek medical attention if the problem persists. Antibiotics may be prescribed if a urinary tract infection is suspected, but this is unlikely in cases with normal urinalysis. Urgent referral is necessary for men with signs and symptoms suggestive of prostate or urological malignancies, or if the underlying cause of haematospermia may be cysts or calculi of the prostate or seminal vesicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 24
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A 79-year-old woman complains of difficulty urinating, weak stream, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying, and urinary leakage. Urodynamic testing reveals a detrusor pressure of 90 cm H2O during voiding (normal range < 70 cm H2O) and a peak flow rate of 5 mL/second (normal range > 15 mL/second). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Overflow incontinence
Explanation:Bladder outlet obstruction can be indicated by a high voiding detrusor pressure and low peak flow rate, leading to overflow incontinence. Voiding symptoms such as poor flow and incomplete emptying may also suggest this condition.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 25
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He also reports that he has noticed galactorrhoea and is experiencing headaches, usually upon waking in the morning. He has no significant past medical history. His blood test results are as follows:
Investigation(s) Result Normal range
Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 130–180 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 3.5–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/l 0.27-4.2 mU/l
Prolactin 5234 mU/l 86-324 mU/l
Which of the following further investigations should be requested?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pituitary
Explanation:For a patient with symptoms and blood tests indicating prolactinaemia, further tests are needed to measure other pituitary hormones. An MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to diagnose a macroprolactinoma, which is likely due to significantly elevated prolactin levels and early-morning headaches. A CT of the adrenal glands is useful in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, which presents with symptoms such as headaches, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea and vomiting, anxiety, and tremors. A 24-hour urinary 5HIAA test is used to diagnose a serotonin-secreting carcinoid tumor, which presents with symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and tachycardia. A chest X-ray is not useful in diagnosing a prolactinoma, which is an adenoma of the pituitary gland. For imaging of prolactinomas, MRI is the preferred method as it is more sensitive in detecting small tumors (microprolactinomas).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 26
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A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic for the second time this year with fever, dysuria, dribbling of urine. Previous admissions were for urinary tract infections. He has a history of hypertension and previous myocardial infarction for which he takes ramipril and rosuvastatin. On examination, he is pyrexial (38.5 °C) and has a pulse of 105/min and his blood pressure (BP) is 142/84 mm Hg. His cardiovascular and respiratory examination is normal. There is suprapubic tenderness with dullness, on percussion, indicating a distended bladder. Per rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate.
What is the best next investigation to determine the cause of this patient’s urinary retention?Your Answer: Ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests can be used. One of the most common tests is an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume, which can estimate the degree of bladder obstruction.
However, other tests such as CT abdomen and MRI abdomen are not useful for diagnosing benign prostatic hyperplasia. CT abdomen is more useful for diagnosing malignancies of the pelvic-ureteric system, while MRI abdomen is more sensitive for diagnosing lymph-node metastasis in prostate cancer.
Micturating cystourethrogram is also not useful for diagnosing prostatic hypertrophy, as it is used to diagnose fistula, vesicoureteric reflux, and urethral stricture. Similarly, serum alpha-fetoprotein has no role in cancer of the prostate, as it is a tumour marker in hepatocellular carcinoma, non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours, and yolk-sac tumours.
In conclusion, an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume is the most useful diagnostic test for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 27
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A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has had an indwelling catheter for several days. In the last 24 hours, he has been noted to have some ‘dizzy spells’ by nurses where he becomes confused and agitated. He has been seen talking to himself, mumbling incoherent ideas, and at other times he seems distracted and disorientated, forgetting where he is. He has a new fever and is tachycardic. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. You suspect he is suffering from delirium.
Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: Leukocytes and nitrites on mid-stream urine sample dipstick
Explanation:Understanding Delirium: Causes and Symptoms
Delirium is a state of confusion that can be caused by various factors, including acute illnesses, infections, drug adverse reactions, and toxicity. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of fever and an indwelling catheter increase the likelihood of a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of delirium. Other causes of delirium include drug-related issues, alcohol withdrawal, metabolic imbalances, and head injury or trauma.
Symptoms of delirium include leukocytes and nitrites on a mid-stream urine sample dipstick, which suggest a UTI. However, a frozen or ‘mask-like’ face is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, not delirium. Structural changes in the brain are usually associated with dementia, while a progressive decline in cognitive function may indicate a space-occupying lesion or bleed (extradural haematoma).
It is important to note that cognitive changes caused by delirium are often reversible by finding and treating the underlying cause. In contrast, irreversible cognitive changes are commonly seen in dementia. Understanding the causes and symptoms of delirium can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and treatment for patients experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. A urinalysis reveals the presence of blood in his urine. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he may have a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) confirms the presence of a likely stone in his left ureter. What imaging technique is best suited for visualizing a renal stone in the ureter?
Your Answer: Intravenous urography (IVU)
Correct Answer: Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB
Explanation:Imaging Tests for Urological Conditions
Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB is recommended by the European Urology Association as a follow-up to initial ultrasound assessment for diagnosing stones, with a 99% identification rate. Micturating cystourethrogram is commonly used in children to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) KUB is not beneficial for renal stone patients due to its high cost. Plain radiography KUB may be useful in monitoring patients with a radio-opaque calculus. Intravenous urography (IVU) is less superior to non-contrast CT scan due to the need for contrast medium injection and increased radiation dosage to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Raised serum creatinine
Correct Answer: Microscopic haematuria
Explanation:Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic
Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:
– Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
– Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
– A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
– A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Genetic testing
Correct Answer: Semen analysis
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing
When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.
If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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