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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with a spot urinary albumin:creatinine ratio of 3.4 mg/mmol.
      Which medication can be prescribed to slow down the advancement of his kidney disease?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Microalbuminuria as a Predictor of Diabetic Nephropathy

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where there is an increased amount of albumin in the urine, which is the first sign of diabetic nephropathy. In men, a urinary ACR of over 2.5 mg/mmol indicates microalbuminuria, while in women, it is over 3.5 mg/mmol. This condition is a predictor of the development of overt nephropathy, which is a severe kidney disease. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with diabetes over the age of 12 years should be screened for microalbuminuria. Moreover, patients who develop microalbuminuria should receive an ACE inhibitor, even if they do not have systemic hypertension. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist can also be used as an alternative to an ACE inhibitor. It is essential to diagnose and treat microalbuminuria early to prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as...

    Incorrect

    • A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as a part of their general practice attachment. The patient informs her that she has a longstanding heart condition, the name of which she cannot remember. The student decides to review an old electrocardiogram (ECG) in her notes, and from it she is able to see that the patient has atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Which of the following ECG findings is typically found in AF?

      Your Answer: T wave inversion

      Correct Answer: Absent P waves

      Explanation:

      Common ECG Findings and Their Significance

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. It records the heart’s rhythm and detects any abnormalities. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:

      1. Absent P waves: Atrial fibrillation causes an irregular pulse and palpitations. ECG findings include absent P waves and irregular QRS complexes.

      2. Long PR interval: A long PR interval indicates heart block. First-degree heart block is a fixed prolonged PR interval.

      3. T wave inversion: T wave inversion can occur in fast atrial fibrillation, indicating cardiac ischaemia.

      4. Bifid P wave (p mitrale): Bifid P waves are caused by left atrial hypertrophy.

      5. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation typically occurs in myocardial infarction. However, it may also occur in pericarditis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding these ECG findings can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been present for 2 days. She reports no other symptoms and has not experienced any vision changes. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications. During the examination, both eyes appear red and injected. When applying light pressure with a cotton bud, the injected vessels appear to move. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      The vessels in episcleritis can be easily moved with gentle pressure on the sclera, while in scleritis, the vessels are deeper and do not move. Episcleritis is characterized by the absence of a decrease in visual acuity and mobile vessels, but the degree of pain can vary. Iritis, also known as anterior uveitis, is typically painful and causes photophobia and vision loss. Posterior uveitis often results in floaters and vision loss. Scleritis does not have mobile vessels due to the deeper location of the injected vessels.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man with a history of smoking and high blood pressure arrives...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of smoking and high blood pressure arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden-onset abdominal pain. He reports that the pain is severe and radiates to his back. Upon examination, a pulsatile mass is detected in his abdomen. The patient is currently stable and able to communicate without difficulty. The medical team suspects an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Which layers of the abdominal aortic wall are expected to be dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intima, media and adventitia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that involves the enlargement of the abdominal aorta, the main blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower body. To understand this condition better, it is important to know the three layers of the aortic wall: the intima, media, and adventitia.

      In a true AAA, all three layers of the aortic wall are affected, with most occurring in the infrarenal segment. This means that the diameter of the aorta is greater than 3 cm or has increased by over 50% from the baseline. The intima and media are pathologically more affected, but the adventitia is also involved.

      A false aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm, on the other hand, only affects the intima and media layers. It is important to note that a true AAA always involves all three layers of the aortic wall.

      It is physically impossible to have an aneurysm only in the outer layer of the aortic wall, as blood would have to pass through the intima and media to cause the destruction of elastin and collagen in the adventitia. Similarly, the intima is the innermost layer of the aortic wall and is certainly affected in an aneurysm, but it is not the only layer involved.

      Understanding the layers of an AAA is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition. Regular check-ups and screenings can help detect an AAA early, which can improve the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
      What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.

      Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.

      Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.

      In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
      Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.

      Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.

      In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4-week-old girl presents with vomiting, jaundice and dehydration. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia and...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old girl presents with vomiting, jaundice and dehydration. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia and metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements

      Explanation:

      Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correcting Metabolic Derangements

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects 3-4/1000 live births, with a higher incidence in males and first-born babies. The condition is characterized by an increase in the length and diameter of the pylorus, with hypertrophy of the circular muscle layer and autonomic nerves. The classical electrolyte abnormality associated with infantile pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis.

      Before undertaking surgery, it is crucial to correct the metabolic abnormalities in consultation with an experienced paediatrician and anaesthetist. Jaundice may also occur in 2-3% of infants with pyloric stenosis due to a decrease in hepatic glucuronosyltransferase activity associated with starvation.

      The tumour is typically diagnosed clinically as a palpable tumour on test feed alongside a history of projectile vomiting and hungry feeding without bile in the vomitus. Upper GI endoscopy may not be necessary if the diagnosis is clear.

      Feeding jejunostomy is not appropriate initial management for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive surgical treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, which involves excluding the umbilicus from the operative field due to the risk of staphylococcus aureus infection. Total parenteral nutrition may be ill-advised given the significant electrolyte derangements associated with the condition.

      In summary, correcting metabolic derangements is crucial before undertaking surgery for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, and other management options should be carefully considered in consultation with experienced healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall over...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall over the curb. She tells you that she is a refugee from Afghanistan. Imaging reveals a fracture of the pubic rami.
      What is the most probable reason for this injury?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Common Musculoskeletal Conditions: Osteomalacia, Tuberculosis, Osteoporosis, Osteogenesis Imperfecta, and Osteosarcoma

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to vitamin D deficiency or defects in phosphate metabolism, resulting in soft bones. Patients may experience bone and joint pain, muscle weakness, or fractures. Treatment involves vitamin D or calcium supplementation, braces, or surgery.

      Tuberculosis can affect the musculoskeletal system, particularly the spine and weightbearing joints. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis can cause a pathological fracture, but osteomalacia is more likely in this case.

      Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease that commonly affects patients over 50 years old. It results from an imbalance in bone formation and resorption, leading to osteoporotic fractures from low energy trauma.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disease characterized by easily fractured bones, bone deformities, and bowed legs and arms. It is caused by mutations in collagen type 1.

      Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor that frequently presents in children and young adults. Symptoms include bone pain and tissue swelling or mass, most commonly affecting the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains of increased frequency of loose motions associated with cramping abdominal pain for six weeks, with an accompanying 5 kg weight loss. He opens his bowels anywhere from three to six times daily, the stool frequently has mucous in it, but no blood. The patient has no recent history of foreign travel and has had no ill contacts. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. The patient is referred to Gastroenterology for further investigation. A colonoscopy and biopsy of an affected area of bowel reveals ulcerative colitis.
      Which of the following is an extra-intestinal clinical feature associated with inflammatory bowel disease?

      Your Answer: Sacroiliitis

      Explanation:

      Extraintestinal Clinical Features Associated with IBD

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often accompanied by joint pain and inflammation, with migratory polyarthritis and sacroiliitis being common arthritic conditions. Other extraintestinal clinical features associated with IBD include aphthous ulcers, anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, episcleritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, finger clubbing, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and fissures. However, aortic aneurysm is not known to be associated with IBD, as it is commonly linked to Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and collagen-vascular diseases. While peripheral arthropathy of the hands is associated with IBD, it is typically asymmetrical and non-deforming. Deforming arthropathy of the hands is more commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes, bony distal and proximal interphalangeal joint nodes, are found in osteoarthritis and are not associated with IBD. Prostatitis, a bacterial infection of the prostate gland, is not associated with IBD and is typically caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae in young, sexually active men, and Escherichia coli in older men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      2.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
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