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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mirena intrauterine system (IUS)

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP clinic complaining of chronic constipation that has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP clinic complaining of chronic constipation that has persisted for several years. He reveals that he has not had a bowel movement in ten days. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes mellitus, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, and paranoid schizophrenia. He is currently taking apixaban, clozapine, digoxin, metformin, and lansoprazole. During the physical examination, the doctor notes a hard, non-tender abdomen and fecal impaction upon PR examination. Which of the medications listed above is likely contributing to his long-standing constipation?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Constipation/intestinal obstruction is a prevalent adverse effect of clozapine.

      Clozapine is known to cause constipation, which can have severe consequences. Research indicates that gastrointestinal side effects, including bowel obstruction and perforation, have a higher mortality rate than agranulocytosis. In contrast, digoxin, metformin, and lansoprazole can all result in diarrhea, while apixaban is not associated with constipation.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.7
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; increased aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to postural hypotension and reduced cortisol levels, while aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      An increased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be an unusual result and does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism. Similarly, an increased cortisol level with increased aldosterone may occur in rare cases of adrenal adenoma but does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      A decreased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be true in primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case in Sheehan’s syndrome. Finally, a decreased cortisol level with increased aldosterone would also be an unusual result as aldosterone levels are not affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with Sheehan’s syndrome, a decreased cortisol level with normal aldosterone is expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?

      Your Answer: Intra-operative hypotension

      Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia

      Explanation:

      During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.

      Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period

      Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.

      There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.

      In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.6
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
      HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
      A + - + + + -
      B - + - + - +
      C + - - + + -
      D + - - + - +
      E - + - - - -

      Your Answer: A

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity

      The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.

      If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.

      In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      26.3
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  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old boy is rushed to the Emergency department following drug use at...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is rushed to the Emergency department following drug use at a party.

      What signs indicate that he may have ingested Ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: Pinpoint pupils

      Correct Answer: Pyrexia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Ecstasy Overdose

      Ecstasy overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including hyperthermia, hypertension, hyponatremia, and respiratory alkalosis. Hyperthermia is characterized by an abnormally high body temperature, which can cause damage to organs and tissues. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to a range of health problems, including heart disease and stroke. Hyponatremia is caused by excessive drinking of water, which can lead to a condition known as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This can cause a range of symptoms, including confusion, seizures, and coma. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by an increase in blood pH, which can cause a range of symptoms, including dizziness, confusion, and seizures. Pinpoint pupils may also suggest the presence of opiates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7.1
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  • Question 7 - A 7-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting, blood in stools, and irritability. During the physical examination, the baby's abdomen is found to be tense, and he draws his knees up in response to palpation.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this baby?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception in Children: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Children with this condition may experience severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. If left untreated, intussusception can lead to bowel perforation, sepsis, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and treat this condition promptly.

      When a child presents with symptoms of intussusception, the most appropriate course of action is to refer them immediately to a paediatric surgical unit. There, doctors will attempt to relieve the intussusception through air reduction, which involves pumping air into the intestine to push the telescoped section back into place. If this method fails, surgery may be necessary to correct the blockage.

      Several risk factors can increase a child’s likelihood of developing intussusception, including viral infections and intestinal lymphadenopathy. Therefore, parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences any symptoms of this condition. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most children with intussusception can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.1
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  • Question 8 - Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.

      Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.

      What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age? ...

    Correct

    • Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Bone Age

      Bone age is affected by various factors such as hypothyroidism, constitutional delay of growth and puberty, growth hormone deficiency, precocious puberty, and familial short stature. In hypothyroidism, bone age is delayed due to the underproduction of thyroid hormones. On the other hand, constitutional delay of growth and puberty causes delayed physiological maturation, including secondary sexual characteristics and bone age. Growth hormone deficiency also results in delayed skeletal maturation. In contrast, precocious puberty causes advanced bone age. Lastly, in familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age, but linear growth is poor, resulting in a short stature. these factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing growth and development issues in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help ensure optimal growth and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck. She is anxious because her sister was diagnosed with a highly aggressive type of thyroid cancer that is prevalent in older adults and has a poor prognosis. What type of cancer is she talking about?

      Your Answer: Follicular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Thyroid Cancer: An Overview

      Thyroid cancer is a relatively rare malignancy that affects the thyroid gland. There are several types of thyroid cancer, each with its own unique characteristics and prognosis. Here is an overview of the most common types of thyroid cancer:

      1. Anaplastic carcinoma: This is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer that is typically found in elderly patients. It has a low survival rate and is usually treated palliatively.

      2. Papillary carcinoma: This is the most common type of thyroid cancer and typically affects younger patients. It tends to spread to local lymph nodes but rarely metastasizes via the bloodstream.

      3. Follicular carcinoma: This is the second most common type of thyroid cancer and is more aggressive than papillary carcinoma. It tends to spread via the bloodstream.

      4. Medullary carcinoma: This type of thyroid cancer originates from thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. It produces calcitonin, which is used as a tumor marker.

      5. Thyroid lymphoma: This is a rare type of thyroid cancer that is almost always a non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma. It is treated as a lymphoma rather than a thyroid cancer.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. If you have concerns about your thyroid health, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      8.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Passmed