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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency department after a workplace accident. He fell from a ladder and sustained a deep wound on his forearm from a rusty nail.
Upon examination, the wound appears to be severely contaminated. After obtaining an x-ray to rule out any foreign objects, what is the most effective cleaning agent to use for this wound?Your Answer: Hydrogen peroxide
Correct Answer: Sterile 0.9% saline
Explanation:There is no evidence that one cleaning agent is superior for wounds, but alcohol-based agents should be avoided. Hydrogen peroxide is not recommended. Tap water, sterile saline, aqueous chlorhexidine, and weak povidone-iodine solutions are commonly used. Contaminated wounds require thorough cleaning and debridement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old baker presents with a history of increasing thirst and polyuria over the past two months. He has put on some weight over the past few years and has been trying to exercise, but with little success. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2. He is otherwise well without other medical history to note.
He mentions that his father has diabetes, as does his older brother. The patient is concerned that he may also have the condition.
Which of the following is the most common finding in a patient presenting with undiagnosed type II diabetes?Your Answer: Polyphagia
Explanation:Type II diabetes is commonly diagnosed in patients over 40 years old, with many patients showing no symptoms. However, when symptoms do occur, they often include increased thirst (polydipsia), frequent urination (polyuria), excessive hunger (polyphagia), blurred vision, yeast infections (balanitis in men), peripheral neuropathy, and bed-wetting (nocturnal enuresis) in younger patients with type I diabetes. While patients with type II diabetes are often overweight, they typically present with recent weight loss rather than weight gain. Markedly elevated ketones are not a common presentation of type II diabetes, but may occur in advanced stages of the disease. Oliguria, or decreased urine output, is not typically seen in patients with type II diabetes, as they tend to experience excessive thirst and increased urine output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 57-year-old man who smokes 20 cigarettes daily developed heart failure post-myocardial infarction. He is prescribed ramipril but decided to stop it due to a persistent dry cough.
What is the mechanism of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor-related cough?Your Answer: Increased bradykinin
Explanation:How Ramipril Causes Cough: Mechanisms and Factors Involved
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This leads to vasodilation and a drop in blood pressure. However, the use of ramipril has been associated with a common side effect of coughing. Here are some mechanisms and factors involved in how ramipril causes cough:
Increased Bradykinin: ACE inhibitors also inhibit kininase II, an enzyme that degrades bradykinin, an inflammatory mediator. In the presence of an ACE inhibitor like ramipril, bradykinin accumulates in the blood, causing bronchoconstriction and cough.
Acid Reflux: Acid reflux is a common cause of nocturnal cough, but it has not been linked to the use of ACE inhibitors.
Reduced Angiotensin II: ACE inhibitors reduce the levels of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, leading to vasodilation and a drop in blood pressure. However, this is not related to the cough caused by the use of ACE inhibitors.
Increased Substance P: ACE inhibitors are not known to affect the levels of substance P, a neurotransmitter associated with pain and inflammation.
Opioid Receptor Antagonism: ACE inhibitors do not interact with opioid receptors, which are targeted by cough suppressants like codeine phosphate.
In conclusion, the accumulation of bradykinin due to the inhibition of kininase II is the most likely mechanism for the cough caused by ramipril. Other factors like acid reflux, reduced angiotensin II, substance P, and opioid receptor antagonism are not involved in this side effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a history of uneventful pregnancy except for moderate morning sickness in the first trimester. She reports several minor symptoms. What symptoms would require further investigation and raise concern?
Your Answer: Dysuria
Explanation:While many symptoms experienced during pregnancy are normal and not a cause for concern, it is important to be aware of symptoms that may indicate a medical issue, such as dysuria.
Dysuria, or painful urination, can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI), which should be treated promptly during any stage of pregnancy. UTIs have been linked to premature birth, as the inflammation caused by the infection can irritate the cervix and trigger preterm labor.
Fatigue during pregnancy is a common experience and can have multiple causes. In the third trimester, it is considered normal. Lower back pain is also a common symptom, caused by the hormone relaxin increasing laxity in the sacroiliac joints and the added mechanical strain of pregnancy.
Nausea and vomiting are most commonly experienced in the first trimester, but can still occur throughout pregnancy and are generally considered normal.
Minor Symptoms of Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience minor symptoms that are common and not usually a cause for concern. These symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, tiredness, and musculoskeletal pains. Nausea and vomiting, commonly known as morning sickness, can occur at any time of the day and may last throughout the first trimester. Tiredness is also a common symptom, especially during the first and third trimesters. Musculoskeletal pains, such as back pain and pelvic pain, may also occur due to the changes in the body’s structure and weight distribution. While these symptoms may be uncomfortable, they are typically manageable and can be relieved with rest, exercise, and proper nutrition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider if these symptoms become severe or persistent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of vomiting and fever. He has no significant medical history. On examination, his urine dipstick is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. An abdominal ultrasound rules out a posterior urethral valve but shows retrograde flow of urine into the ureters from the bladder. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intravenous pyelogram
Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)
Explanation:The preferred investigation for reflux nephropathy is micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). MCUG is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux and associated reflux nephropathy. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the patient’s bladder, and a radio-opaque dye is injected. The patient then empties their bladder, and x-rays are taken to detect any reflux of the dye into the ureters, which confirms the diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy.
CT kidneys ureters and bladder is an inappropriate investigation for reflux nephropathy, as it cannot detect this condition. This type of scan is typically used to diagnose kidney stones, not reflux nephropathy.
DMSA scan is not the first-line investigation for reflux nephropathy. While DMSA scans can be used to assess the extent of renal scarring caused by vesicoureteric reflux, they are not the preferred method for diagnosing this condition. DMSA scans are nuclear imaging scans, which makes them unsuitable as a first-line investigation for suspected reflux nephropathy.
Intravenous pyelography is not used to assess reflux nephropathy. This type of investigation is typically used to evaluate haematuria or flank pain.
Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux
Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.
The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.
To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.
Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Your next patient in an antenatal clinic is a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant. What examination findings would cause you to be concerned?
Your Answer: Free head on palpation
Correct Answer: Fundal height growth of 2 cm per week
Explanation:The expected fundal height growth per week after 24 weeks is 1 cm, not 2 cm. If the fundal height is increasing by 2 cm per week, there may be a multiple pregnancy or the baby may be larger than expected, requiring further investigation. The fundus should be palpable at the umbilicus by 20 weeks and at the xiphoid sternum by 36 weeks. The head is typically free on palpation until around 37 weeks for nulliparous women, but may engage earlier in multiparous women. Breech presentation is common before 34 weeks and only becomes a concern if preterm labor occurs.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit after intentionally overdosing on 60 paracetamol tablets over a period of 12 hours. She presents with abdominal pain and nausea and has a history of depression and anxiety. The patient is started on acetylcysteine treatment and is reviewed the following day. The blood results at 24 hours into admission show a pH of 7.29 (7.35 - 7.45), lactate of 1.9 mmol/L (0.9 - 1.6), paracetamol levels of 2 (< 3), creatinine of 155 µmol/L (55 - 120), prothrombin time of 18 secs (10-14 secs), ALT of 90 u/L (3 - 40), and bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (3 - 17). What is the next most definitive step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Referral for dialysis
Correct Answer: Referral for liver transplant
Explanation:In cases of paracetamol overdose, liver transplantation may be necessary if certain criteria are met, such as an arterial pH below 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion. This patient has shown signs of severe hepatotoxicity and meets the criteria for referral to a liver transplant. It is not appropriate to discharge them with hepatology follow-up alone.
Metabolic acidosis is a serious indicator of paracetamol overdose and can be managed with supportive treatment such as intravenous sodium bicarbonate. However, this will not cure hepatotoxicity. Dialysis may be necessary for refractory acidosis, but it will not reverse the damage caused by the overdose. The most definitive treatment is a liver transplant.
This patient has already received acetylcysteine treatment, which replaces glutathione stores used up in the metabolism of paracetamol. However, they have not shown complete hepatocellular recovery, so repeated acetylcysteine treatment is not necessary.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?Your Answer: Central artery
Correct Answer: Splenic sinusoid
Explanation:The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries
The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.
One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.
The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.
The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.
Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.
Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Explanation:Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases
Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 39+0 weeks pregnant undergoes an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up slow labour. However, soon after the procedure, the CTG shows foetal bradycardia and the umbilical cord is palpable at the vaginal opening. What is the first step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Attempt to return the umbilical cord to the uterus
Correct Answer: Ask the mother to 'go on all fours'
Explanation:The appropriate action for a woman with a cord prolapse is to request that she assume an all-fours position on her knees and elbows. This condition occurs when the umbilical cord descends before the fetus’s presenting part, resulting in signs of fetal distress on a CTG after an artificial rupture of membranes. To prevent compression, the fetus’s presenting part may be pushed back into the uterus, and tocolytics may be used. If the cord is beyond the introitus, it should be kept warm and moist but not pushed back inside. The patient should be instructed to assume an all-fours position until an immediate caesarean section can be arranged. Applying external suprapubic pressure is not recommended, as it is part of the initial management of shoulder dystocia. Attempting to return the umbilical cord to the uterus is not recommended, as it may worsen fetal hypoxia and cause vasospasm. An episiotomy is not necessary for the initial management of cord prolapse and is typically used during instrumental vaginal deliveries or when the mother is at high risk of perineal trauma.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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