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  • Question 1 - A patient's arterial blood gas shows the following:
    pH 7.30
    O2 13 kPa
    CO2 3.0 kPa
    HCO3−...

    Correct

    • A patient's arterial blood gas shows the following:
      pH 7.30
      O2 13 kPa
      CO2 3.0 kPa
      HCO3− 15.0 mmol/l
      Which of the following does the above blood gas picture represent for a patient in their 60s?

      Your Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acid-Base Imbalances: Differentiating Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis, Respiratory Acidosis, Compensated Respiratory Acidosis, Metabolic Acidosis, and Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis

      Acid-base imbalances can be challenging to interpret, but understanding the underlying mechanisms can help healthcare professionals identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of acid-base imbalances:

      Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis: The patient is acidotic, but the CO2 is low, indicating compensation. The lowered HCO3- confirms metabolic acidosis, but calculating the anion gap can help identify the cause.

      Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, indicating respiratory acidosis.

      Compensated Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, but the pH is normal due to compensation.

      Metabolic Acidosis: The HCO3- is low, indicating metabolic acidosis. However, if there is partial compensation with lowered CO2, it can be classified as partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

      Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis: The patient is acidotic, not alkalotic, so this is not the correct diagnosis.

      By understanding the different types of acid-base imbalances and their underlying mechanisms, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on his neck. During examination, a sebaceous cystic swelling measuring 2 cm in diameter is found in the left anterior neck triangle near the midline, with a punctum on top. The surgeon makes an elliptical incision around the cyst and removes the skin with the central punctum. The cyst is then removed to a depth of 1 cm. You have been tasked with closing the skin wound. What is the best option?

      Your Answer: Steristrips

      Correct Answer: Monocryl

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Suture Material for Skin Closure

      When it comes to closing a skin defect, several factors need to be considered, including the location of the wound, required tensile strength, cosmesis, and ease of stitch removal, especially in children. Monocryl, a monofilament absorbable suture, is the best choice for achieving optimal cosmetic results. Nylon, another monofilament suture, is also a reasonable option, but Monocryl’s absorbable nature eliminates the need for stitch removal, making it more practical for children. Steri-strips may not provide enough strength to keep the wound closed, while staples are more likely to cause scarring. Silk, a multi-filament non-absorbable suture, is not ideal for achieving optimal cosmesis. Therefore, choosing the right suture material is crucial for achieving the best possible outcome in skin closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic with persistent pain during sexual...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic with persistent pain during sexual intercourse. Despite previous attempts with NSAIDs and progesterone-only hormonal treatments, her symptoms have not improved. She has a medical history of migraine with aura. The pain is most severe with deep penetration and worsens towards the end of her menstrual cycle. She also experiences dysmenorrhoea. During pelvic examination, tender nodularity is noted at the posterior vaginal fornix.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: GnRH analogues

      Explanation:

      If paracetamol and NSAIDs have not effectively controlled symptoms of endometriosis, GnRH analogues may be used as a next step in treatment. This is the appropriate course of action for a woman presenting with symptoms of deep dyspareunia and dysmenorrhoea, along with tender nodularity on examination in the posterior vaginal fornix. As endometriosis is exacerbated by rising oestrogen levels during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, inducing a menopause state with GnRH analogues can help alleviate symptoms. However, it is important to note that this treatment can cause menopause-like side effects and should only be initiated by specialists after careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is not recommended in this case due to the woman’s medical history of migraine with aura. Similarly, IM ceftriaxone and PO doxycycline are not appropriate treatments as they are used to manage pelvic inflammatory disease, which presents differently and is not influenced by hormones. Intra-uterine devices are also not recommended as a treatment for endometriosis as they lack a hormonal component and can worsen symptoms.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that spreads to the right side. During examination, his sclera appear yellow, and he experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen with localized guarding. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 95/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, saturation 99% on 2L, temperature 39.5ºC, and Glasgow coma score 14/15 (confused speech). Which of the following diagnoses could account for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s cholangitis triad consists of three symptoms: fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Meanwhile, Reynolds Pentad, which includes jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever/rigors, shock, and altered mental status, is linked to ascending cholangitis. Before conducting further investigations on the biliary tree, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography for common bile duct stones, or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, the patient must first receive adequate resuscitation.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by cancer?

      Your Answer: Pinaverium

      Explanation:

      Medications for Pain Relief in Various Conditions

      Pinaverium is a medication that is commonly used to reduce the duration of pain in individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). On the other hand, carbamazepine is used to treat neuropathic pain that is associated with malignancy, diabetes, and other disorders. Clodronate is another medication that is used to treat malignant bone pain and hypercalcaemia by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption.

      Corticosteroids are also used to treat pain caused by central nervous system tumours. These medications work by reducing inflammation and oedema, which in turn relieves the pain caused by neural compression. Nifedipine is another medication that is used to relieve painful oesophageal spasm and tenesmus that is associated with gastrointestinal tumours.

      Lastly, oxybutynin is a medication that is used to relieve painful bladder spasm. Overall, these medications are used to treat pain in various conditions and can provide relief to individuals who are experiencing discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In which joint is recurrent dislocation most frequently observed? ...

    Correct

    • In which joint is recurrent dislocation most frequently observed?

      Your Answer: Shoulder

      Explanation:

      The Shoulder Joint: Flexible and Unstable

      The shoulder joint is known for its remarkable flexibility, allowing for a wide range of motion. This is due to the small area of contact between the upper arm bone and the socket on the scapula, which is also shallow. However, this same feature also makes the shoulder joint unstable, making it the most susceptible to dislocation.

      In summary, the shoulder joint flexibility is due to its small contact area and shallow socket, but this also makes it unstable and prone to dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) wants to participate in the NHS screening programme for AAA. He reports no recent abdominal or back pain, has no chronic medical conditions, is not taking any long-term medications, has never smoked, and has no family history of AAA. An aortic ultrasound is performed and shows an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.7 cm. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have an abdominal aorta diameter measuring 5.5 cm or more should receive an appointment with a vascular specialist within 14 days of being diagnosed. Those with an abdominal aorta diameter ranging from 3 cm to 5.4 cm should be referred to a regional vascular service and seen within 12 weeks of diagnosis. For individuals with an abdominal aorta diameter of 3 cm to 4.4 cm, a repeat scan should be conducted annually. As the patient is in good health, hospitalization is not necessary.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. He currently weighs...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. He currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76 m. To the nearest decimal point, what is his estimated body mass index (BMI)?

      Your Answer: 31

      Correct Answer: 34

      Explanation:

      BMI and its Calculation

      Body:

      Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight of an individual in kilograms by the square of their height in meters. The resulting number is then used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.

      To calculate BMI, one needs to divide their weight by the square of their height. For instance, if an individual weighs 106 kilograms and their height is 1.76 meters, their BMI would be calculated as 106/(1.76)2, which equals 34.22. This means that the person’s BMI falls within the obese range, indicating that they have excess body fat.

      In conclusion, BMI is a useful tool for assessing a person’s weight status and the risk of developing weight-related health problems. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old patient is seen in clinic. He has a medical history of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old patient is seen in clinic. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis, asthma, type II diabetes, dyspepsia, chronic kidney disease and atrial fibrillation. He is currently taking metformin, salbutamol, paracetamol, omeprazole and digoxin. Blood tests show a continued decline in renal function, with a GFR previously at 34 ml/min/1.73 m2 now at 26 ml/min/1.73 m2. Which medication should be discontinued at this point?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Use in Renal Failure: Considerations and Contraindications

      Renal failure can significantly impact medication management, as certain drugs may be contraindicated or require dosage adjustments to avoid adverse effects. Metformin, for example, should not be used in renal failure due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Salbutamol and paracetamol, on the other hand, can be safely used in renal failure. Omeprazole may cause acute interstitial nephritis, but it is important to consider the underlying cause of renal failure (such as diabetes) before determining its appropriateness. Digoxin can be used in renal failure, but with caution and at reduced dosage due to its renal excretion. Healthcare providers should carefully evaluate medication use in patients with renal failure to ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/4) 50%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Passmed