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Question 1
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A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of abdominal fullness and occasional pain. He reports experiencing anorexia, acid reflux, belching, and bloating. He is currently taking glimepiride, metformin, and exenatide and has generally had good control of his blood sugar. However, his last two tests have shown a trend of increasing fasting glucose levels. What is the next appropriate step in managing his condition?
Your Answer: Change diabetic medication
Explanation:Changing Diabetic Medication for Gastroparesis
A diabetic patient is experiencing delayed gastric emptying, a common side-effect of GLP-1 agonists like exenatide. To achieve better glycaemic control and prevent current side-effects, the patient’s diabetic medication needs to be changed. However, converting to insulin is not necessary for gastroparesis. Intensifying the current medication is not appropriate due to significant side-effects. Before considering a prokinetic agent like metoclopramide or domperidone, the GLP-1 analogue should be stopped. Treatment for H. pylori infection is not warranted as the patient’s symptoms are not indicative of peptic ulcer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
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As a locum GP, you have a pregnant patient who denies symptoms or urinary tract infection. What urinalysis results might be expected for patients A, B, C, D, and E?
Patient A:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: +++
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: +
Patient B:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: ++
- Leucocytes: ++
Patient C:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: +++
- Leucocytes: +++
Patient D:
- Haemoglobin: Negative
- Urobilinogen: Negative
- Bilirubin: Negative
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: Negative
Patient E:
- Haemoglobin: +++
- Urobilinogen: +
- Bilirubin: +
- Protein: Negative
- Glucose: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
- Leucocytes: NegativeYour Answer: A
Explanation:Urinalysis in Pregnancy: Common Abnormalities and Importance of Monitoring
Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool for detecting renal diseases and other medical conditions. During pregnancy, even asymptomatic women may exhibit abnormalities on urinalysis. These abnormalities include small amounts of glucose, increased protein loss associated with pre-eclampsia, and the presence of ketones only during fasting. Pregnant women are also prone to sterile pyuria and non-specific changes in leukocytes.
Monitoring for urinary infections is particularly important during pregnancy, as it has been linked to premature labor. However, minor and non-specific changes on urinalysis can sometimes falsely reassure clinicians. Pregnant women are at a higher risk of UTIs due to their immunosuppressed state, and may present with atypical symptoms or unusual urinalysis features. Therefore, urine should be sent for culture if there are any concerns.
In summary, urinalysis is an essential tool for monitoring the health of pregnant women. the common abnormalities associated with pregnancy and the importance of monitoring for urinary infections can help clinicians provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
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A 60-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hand pain that worsens with activity and towards the end of the day. He has a medical history of psoriasis and is not currently taking any medications. During the examination, the doctor notes tender bony swellings in three DIP joints on both hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The presence of Heberden’s nodes, which are bony swellings at the DIP joints, is a characteristic feature of osteoarthritis in the hand. Pain that worsens with activity, rather than rest, is also more indicative of OA than inflammatory arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis can cause swelling of the DIP joints, but the swelling is typically boggy rather than bony, and the pain tends to be worse in the morning and improve with activity. Reactive arthritis is unlikely to cause a DIP predominant arthritis, as it typically presents as a large joint lower limb oligoarthritis, and there is no recent history of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis does not typically affect the DIP joints.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
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As an orthopaedic ward doctor, you are examining a 24-year-old man who was brought in by ambulance after falling from a tree branch. He reports dislocating his left hip after landing on it while flexed and abducted. The dislocation was reduced under general anaesthetic. During the current assessment, the patient reports experiencing pain primarily in the posterior area of his left thigh, which radiates down to the posterior and lateral regions of his leg. Upon gait assessment, a left foot drop was observed. Which nerve is most likely affected due to this injury?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a hip dislocation, which is consistent with their reported injury. It is common for the sciatic nerve to be damaged or stretched during a posterior hip dislocation, as it runs behind the femur. The pain experienced by the patient follows the path of the sciatic nerve, and the foot drop is a result of damage to the common peroneal nerve, which is supplied by the sciatic nerve. While femoral nerve injury is also possible with a posterior hip dislocation, it would result in different symptoms such as loss of sensation in the front and inside of the thigh and weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. The obturator nerve and pudendal nerve are unlikely to be affected in this case, as they would cause different symptoms such as weakness in thigh abduction or sensory impairment to the external genitalia and bladder/bowel dysfunction, respectively.
Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications
Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.
There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, without leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.
The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.
Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
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A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father for a check-up. Upon examination, she has a delay in her overall development. She is not yet able to walk or crawl, but she can use her fingers to pick up objects and is happily playing with toys during the visit. She can say a few words, such as mom and dad. During the examination, you notice some bruises on her abdomen, left elbow, and right forearm. Her father explains that these bruises are due to her clumsiness and he is concerned that she will continue to hurt herself. He mentions that her mother had a similar condition that required oral steroids and wonders if his daughter has developed the same condition.
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Same-day paediatric assessment
Explanation:Immediate paediatric assessment is necessary for a non-mobile infant with multiple bruises, as this could indicate non-accidental injury. Bruising near the trunk, cheeks, ears, or buttocks should also be considered red flags. Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, but the priority is to assess for potential abuse. Oral prednisolone is not first-line for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and reassurance and discharge are not appropriate in this situation.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
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A 42-year-old teacher presents to the general practitioner (GP) complaining of fatigue and muscle pains. The symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months, and now she feels too tired after work to attend her weekly yoga class. She has a history of seasonal allergies and takes antihistamines during the spring and summer. The patient is a non-smoker, drinks occasionally, and follows a vegetarian diet.
During examination, no abnormalities are found, and the GP orders blood tests for further investigation. The results reveal a serum vitamin D (25OHD) level of 18 nmol/l (normal value recommended > 50 nmol/l).
Which molecule involved in the vitamin D synthesis pathway binds to the vitamin D receptor to regulate calcium homeostasis?Your Answer: Calcitriol
Explanation:Understanding the Different Forms of Vitamin D
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in calcium homeostasis. However, it exists in different forms, each with its own unique properties and functions. Here are the different forms of vitamin D and their roles:
1. Calcitriol: Also known as 1, 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, this form of vitamin D binds to the vitamin D receptor to create a ligand-receptor complex that alters cellular gene expression.
2. Previtamin D3: This is the precursor to vitamin D3 and does not play a direct role in calcium homeostasis.
3. Calcidiol: This is 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, the precursor to calcitriol. It has a very low affinity for the vitamin D receptor and is largely inactive.
4. Colecalciferol: This is vitamin D3, which is itself inactive and is the precursor to calcidiol.
5. 24, 25-dihydroxycolecalciferol: This is an inactive form of calcidiol and is excreted.
Understanding the different forms of vitamin D is important in determining the appropriate supplementation and treatment for vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain, radiating to the intrascapular area, which he describes as a tearing-type pain.
The patient is usually well, with the only other medical history of note being a diagnosis of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. He is a non-smoker and rarely drinks.
On examination, the patient appears to be in a significant amount of pain. He is apyrexial, with oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Of note, the patient has a blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg in the right arm and 150/80 mmHg in the left. An early diastolic murmur is also heard in the aortic area.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Aortic Dissection
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a tear in the aortic intima, creating a false lumen between the intima and media. This condition is more likely to occur in men, older individuals, and those with hypertension or connective tissue disorders such as Marfan and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.
The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes abrupt chest pain that is often described as a shearing or tearing-type pain that may radiate to the back. Other symptoms may include differences in blood pressure between the right and left arm, aortic regurgitation, and signs of malperfusion.
While a chest X-ray may show widening of the mediastinal shadow, imaging such as computed tomography (CT) or transoesophageal echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves stabilizing the patient’s heart rate and blood pressure to prevent further damage, followed by surgical repair.
Although myocardial infarction is a differential diagnosis, the classical history of presentation, age, and connective tissue disorder diagnosis make aortic dissection more likely in this scenario. Other differentials, such as ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, acute pancreatitis, and pulmonary embolism, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.
In conclusion, aortic dissection should be considered in any patient presenting with sudden-onset chest pain, especially those with risk factors for the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 8
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A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a phone consultation to discuss her recent cervical smear test results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 3 years ago and was reported as normal. The results of her latest test are as follows: Positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and negative for cytology. What should be the next course of action in her management?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months
Explanation:The correct course of action for an individual who tests positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but receives a negative cytology report during routine primary HPV screening is to repeat the HPV test after 12 months. If the HPV test is negative at this point, the individual can return to routine recall. However, if the individual remains hrHPV positive and cytology negative, another HPV test should be conducted after a further 12 months. If the individual is still hrHPV positive after 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy. It is incorrect to repeat the cervical smear in 3 months, wait 3 years for a repeat smear, or refer the individual to colposcopy without abnormal cytology.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
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A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:
1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.
2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.
3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.
4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.
5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
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A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Which of the following illnesses is most accurately characterized as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Hereditary haemochromatosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations occurring in the HFE gene. The C282Y mutation accounts for 90% of cases and causes increased iron absorption, leading to iron overload. Wilson’s disease is also inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations in the ATP7B gene causing copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the β globin gene, leading to sickled red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water and leading to thickened mucous that blocks hollow organs and provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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