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  • Question 1 - You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. The patient's pulse rate is recorded as 44 beats per minute. Your assessment focuses on identifying reversible causes of bradycardia. Which of the following metabolic conditions is commonly associated with reversible bradycardia?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypermagnesemia

      Explanation:

      Some reversible metabolic causes of bradycardia include hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypothermia. These conditions can lead to a slow heart rate and can be treated or reversed.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath. The patient reports feeling more fatigued and breathless with minimal exertion over the past few months, but in the past few days, she has been experiencing breathlessness even at rest. She informs you that she has been taking aspirin, ramipril, bisoprolol, and rosuvastatin for the past 5 years since she had a minor heart attack. Upon examination, you observe prominent neck veins, bilateral lung crepitations that are worse at the bases, faint heart sounds, and pitting edema below the knee. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 130/84 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 90 bpm
      Respiration rate: 23 bpm
      Temperature: 37.0ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metolazone: 5-10 mg orally

      Correct Answer: Furosemide 40 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s symptoms and physical findings, the most appropriate initial treatment would be to administer Furosemide 40 mg intravenously. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, which can alleviate symptoms of fluid overload such as shortness of breath and edema. By reducing fluid volume, Furosemide can help improve the patient’s breathing and relieve the strain on the heart.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac failure, also known as heart failure, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms and signs resulting from abnormalities in the structure or function of the heart. This can lead to reduced cardiac output or high filling pressures at rest or with stress. Heart failure can be caused by various problems such as myocardial, valvular, pericardial, endocardial, or arrhythmic issues.

      The most common causes of heart failure in the UK are coronary heart disease and hypertension. However, there are many other possible causes, including valvular heart disease, structural heart disease, cardiomyopathies, certain drugs or toxins, endocrine disorders, nutritional deficiencies, infiltrative diseases, infections, and arrhythmias. Conditions that increase peripheral demand on the heart, such as anemia, pregnancy, sepsis, hyperthyroidism, Paget’s disease of bone, arteriovenous malformations, and beriberi, can also lead to high-output cardiac failure.

      Signs and symptoms of heart failure include edema, lung crepitations, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, displaced apex beat, right ventricular heave, elevated jugular venous pressure, cyanosis, hepatomegaly, ascites, pleural effusions, breathlessness, fatigue, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, nocturnal cough or wheeze, and Presyncope.

      To diagnose heart failure, NICE recommends three key tests: N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP), transthoracic echocardiography, and ECG. Additional tests may include chest X-ray, blood tests (U&Es, thyroid function, LFT’s, lipid profile, HbA1C, FBC), urinalysis, and peak flow or spirometry.

      Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure, involves ensuring a patent airway, optimizing breathing with supplemental oxygen and non-invasive ventilation if necessary, and addressing circulation with loop diuretics to reduce preload, vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload, and inotropes if hypotension or signs of end organ hypoperfusion persist.

      In summary, cardiac failure is a clinical syndrome resulting from abnormalities in cardiac function. It can have various causes and is characterized by specific signs and symptoms. Diagnosis involves specific tests, and management focuses on addressing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for the past three days. The pain is worsened by deep inspiration and lying flat and relieved by sitting forwards. He recently returned from a vacation in Spain, which involved a short flight. He has no significant medical history but smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His father died from a heart attack at the age of 58. His vital signs are as follows: HR 102, BP 128/72, temperature 37.1oC, SaO2 96% on room air. His ECG shows widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uremia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that worsens with lying flat and improves when sitting forwards, along with shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      Characteristic electrocardiogram (ECG) changes associated with pericarditis typically show widespread concave or ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation, widespread PR depression, reciprocal ST depression and PR elevation in aVR (and sometimes V1), and sinus tachycardia is commonly observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.

      It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old patient who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three shocks, the patient experiences a return of spontaneous circulation.

      What are the recommended blood pressure goals following a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Mean arterial pressure 70-120 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure 65-100 mmHg

      Explanation:

      After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), there are two specific blood pressure targets that need to be achieved. The first target is to maintain a systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. The second target is to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) within the range of 65 to 100 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
    Which specific beta-blocker is approved...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
      Which specific beta-blocker is approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Nebivolol

      Explanation:

      Currently, there are three beta-blockers that have been approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol.

      Chronic HF is a common clinical syndrome resulting from coronary artery disease (CAD), HTN, valvular heart disease, and/or primary cardiomyopathy. There is now conclusive evidence that β-blockers, when added to ACE inhibitors, substantially reduce mortality, decrease sudden death, and improve symptoms in patients with HF. Despite the overwhelming evidence and guidelines that mandate the use of β-blockers in all HF patients without contraindications, many patients do not receive this treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a pansystolic murmur.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a pansystolic murmur.
      Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a pansystolic murmur?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis leads to the presence of a murmur during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most audible at the right second intercostal space and can be heard extending into the right neck.

      Mitral regurgitation, on the other hand, produces a high-pitched murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart and can be heard radiating into the axilla.

      Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a blowing murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most clearly heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      Ventricular septal defect results in a harsh murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the third or fourth left intercostal space and can be heard radiating throughout the praecordium.

      Aortopulmonary shunts are an extremely rare cause of a murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple administrations of atropine, there has been no improvement in the patient's condition. Which two medications would be the most suitable options to consider next for treating this rhythm?

      Your Answer: Glucagon/adenosine

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline/Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline and isoprenaline are considered as second-line medications for the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine fails to improve the condition, transcutaneous pacing is recommended. However, if pacing is not available, the administration of second-line drugs becomes necessary. Adrenaline is typically given intravenously at a dosage of 2-10 mcg/minute, while isoprenaline is given at a dosage of 5 mcg/minute. It is important to note that glucagon is not mentioned as a treatment option for this patient’s bradycardia, as the cause of the condition is not specified as a beta-blocker overdose.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a severe 'tearing' abdominal pain that radiates to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a severe 'tearing' abdominal pain that radiates to her lower back. A diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected.
      Which of the following would be the LEAST likely risk factor for aortic dissection?

      Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cannabis usage

      Explanation:

      There is no known connection between the use of cannabis and aortic dissection. Some factors that are recognized as increasing the risk of aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a concerned coworker who noticed that the patient seemed unsteady on his feet and very short of breath when walking to his car. The patient tells you they usually feel a bit short of breath when doing things like walking to their car or going up the stairs. On examination you note a regular pulse, rate 88 bpm, but an audible ejection systolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Severe aortic stenosis (AS) is characterized by several distinct features. These include a slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur that is heard loudest in the aortic area and may radiate to the carotids, and a soft or absent S2 heart sound. Additionally, patients with severe AS often have a narrow pulse pressure and may exhibit an S4 heart sound.

      AS is commonly caused by hypertension, although blood pressure findings can vary. In severe cases, patients may actually be hypotensive due to impaired cardiac output. Symptoms of severe AS typically include Presyncope or syncope, exertional chest pain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms can be remembered using the acronym SAD (Syncope, Angina, Dyspnoea).

      It is important to note that aortic stenosis primarily affects older individuals, as it is a result of scarring and calcium buildup in the valve. Age-related AS typically begins after the age of 60, but symptoms may not appear until patients are in their 70s or 80s.

      Diastolic murmurs, on the other hand, are associated with conditions such as aortic regurgitation, pulmonary regurgitation, and mitral stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, which states 'unspecified age septal infarction' in the comments section.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute septal STEMI?

      Your Answer: V3, V4

      Correct Answer: V1, V2

      Explanation:

      The septum, which is a part of the heart, can be best identified by examining leads V1 and V2. The septum receives its blood supply from the proximal left anterior descending artery (LAD). The LAD is responsible for supplying blood to the anterior myocardium and also contributes to the blood supply of the lateral myocardium. If the LAD becomes blocked, it can result in ST elevation in all the chest leads.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after experiencing a heart attack. She complains of significant shortness of breath. During the physical examination, a pansystolic murmur is audible and is most prominent at the lower left sternal border.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Post myocardial infarction ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a rare but serious complication that occurs when the cardiac wall ruptures. It typically develops 2-3 days after a heart attack, and if left untreated, 85% of patients will die within two months. The murmur associated with VSD is a continuous sound throughout systole, and it is loudest at the lower left sternal edge. A palpable vibration, known as a thrill, is often felt along with the murmur.

      Dressler’s syndrome, on the other hand, is a type of pericarditis that occurs 2-10 weeks after a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is characterized by sharp chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards. Other signs of Dressler’s syndrome include a rubbing sound heard when listening to the heart, pulsus paradoxus (an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inspiration), and signs of right ventricular failure.

      Mitral regurgitation also causes a continuous murmur throughout systole, but it is best heard at the apex of the heart and may radiate to the axilla (armpit).

      Tricuspid stenosis, on the other hand, causes an early diastolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge during inspiration.

      Lastly, mitral stenosis causes a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard at the apex of the heart. To listen for this murmur, the patient should be in the left lateral position, and the stethoscope bell should be used during expiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur...

    Incorrect

    • While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:

      Feature: Aortic stenosis
      – Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
      – Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
      – Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
      – Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: Radiates to carotids.

      Feature: Aortic sclerosis
      – Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
      – Pulse: Normal pulse character.
      – Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
      – Thrill: No thrill.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: No radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began a few hours ago. This is his first-ever episode, and he has no significant medical history.
      Which of the following accurately characterizes the type of AF he has experienced?

      Your Answer: Persistent

      Correct Answer: Acute

      Explanation:

      In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.

      Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.

      Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.

      Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.

      By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.

      What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Bounding pulse

      Correct Answer: Malar flush

      Explanation:

      One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with a history of central chest pain that lasted approximately 45 minutes. Her ECG showed T wave inversion in the lateral leads, but her pain settled, and ECG normalized following the administration of GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 325 mg of aspirin on arrival. A troponin test has been organized and admission arranged.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day. She fainted while jogging on the treadmill at her local gym. She regained consciousness quickly and currently feels completely fine. Upon examination, she has a slim physique, normal heart sounds without any additional sounds or murmurs, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen. She is originally from Thailand and mentions that her mother passed away suddenly in her 30s.

      Her ECG reveals:
      - Right bundle branch block pattern
      - Downward-sloping 'coved' ST elevation in leads V1-V3
      - Widespread upward-sloping ST depression in other leads

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is a genetic disorder that is passed down from one generation to another in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by abnormal findings on an electrocardiogram (ECG) and can lead to sudden cardiac death. The cause of death in individuals with Brugada syndrome is typically ventricular fibrillation, which occurs as a result of specific defects in ion channels that are determined by our genes. Interestingly, this syndrome is more commonly observed in South East Asia and is actually the leading cause of sudden unexplained cardiac death in Thailand.

      One of the key features seen on an ECG that is consistent with Type 1 Brugada syndrome is a pattern known as right bundle branch block. Additionally, there is a distinct downward sloping coved ST elevation observed in leads V1-V3. These specific ECG findings help to identify individuals who may be at risk for developing Brugada syndrome and experiencing its potentially fatal consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden difficulty breathing, heart palpitations, and a cough that produces pink frothy sputum. During the examination, you observe an irregular heart rhythm, crackling sounds in the lower parts of the lungs, a loud first heart sound, and a mid-late diastolic murmur. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by a narrowing of the mitral valve, which can lead to various symptoms. One common symptom is a mid-late diastolic murmur, which can be heard during a physical examination. This murmur may also be described as mid-diastolic, late-diastolic, or mid-late diastolic. Additionally, patients with chronic mitral stenosis may not experience any symptoms, and the murmur may only be detected incidentally.

      A significant risk associated with mitral stenosis is the development of atrial fibrillation (AF). When AF occurs in patients with mitral stenosis, it can trigger acute pulmonary edema. This happens because the left atrium, which is responsible for pumping blood across the narrowed mitral valve into the left ventricle, needs to generate higher pressure. However, when AF occurs, the atrial contraction becomes inefficient, leading to impaired emptying of the left atrium. This, in turn, causes increased back pressure in the pulmonary circulation.

      The elevated pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation can result in the rupture of bronchial veins, leading to the production of pink frothy sputum. This symptom is often observed in patients with mitral stenosis who develop acute pulmonary edema.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

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  • Question 19 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness...

    Correct

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe reversed splitting of the second heart sound (S2).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.

      A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).

      On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).

      A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.

      Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.

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  • Question 20 - You are managing a 68-year-old woman who has been brought to the resuscitation...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 68-year-old woman who has been brought to the resuscitation bay by the ambulance team. The patient experienced sudden dizziness and difficulty breathing while at home. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG for your review. Your plan includes administering atropine to address the patient's arrhythmia. Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of atropine?

      Your Answer: Heart transplant

      Explanation:

      Atropine should not be given to patients with certain conditions, including heart transplant, angle-closure glaucoma, gastrointestinal motility disorders, myasthenia gravis, severe ulcerative colitis, toxic megacolon, bladder outflow obstruction, and urinary retention. In heart transplant patients, atropine will not have the desired effect as the denervated hearts do not respond to vagal blockade. Giving atropine in these patients may even lead to paradoxical sinus arrest or high-grade AV block.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of central chest pain that radiate...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of central chest pain that radiate to her left arm. She has a history of angina and uses a GTN spray for relief. She reports that the pains have been occurring more frequently in the past few days and have been triggered by less exertion. Currently, she is not experiencing any pain, and her ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no abnormalities in T wave or ST-segment.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prinzmetal angina

      Correct Answer: Unstable angina

      Explanation:

      Unstable angina is characterized by the presence of one or more of the following symptoms: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) may appear normal or show T-wave/ST-segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are typically within normal range.

      On the other hand, stable angina is defined by central chest pain that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. This pain may radiate to the jaw or left arm and is relieved by resting for a few minutes. It is usually brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      Prinzmetal angina, although rare, is a variant of angina that primarily occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and tend to happen in clusters. This type of angina is caused by coronary artery spasm, and patients may have normal coronary arteries.

      Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It often develops as a result of cardiac failure due to an increased volume of blood within the blood vessels, which places additional strain on the heart.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is an extremely serious and potentially life-threatening cellulitis that affects the submandibular area. It most commonly arises from an infection in the floor of the mouth, which then spreads to the submandibular space.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain. She describes the pain as being ‘extremely severe’, and it is aggravated by movement and coughing. The pain radiates to her neck and shoulder on the affected side. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On examination, she exhibits localized tenderness around the 4th rib on the right-hand side. Her lung fields are clear, and her heart sounds are normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Tietze’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tietze’s syndrome is an uncommon condition that leads to localized pain and tenderness in one or more of the upper four ribs, with the second and third ribs being the most commonly affected. The exact cause of this syndrome is still unknown, although it has been suggested that it may be linked to repeated small injuries to the chest wall.

      The pain experienced in Tietze’s syndrome is typically aggravated by movement, sneezing, and coughing, and it can also extend to the neck or shoulder on the affected side. In some cases, a firm swelling can be felt over the cartilage of the affected rib. While the pain usually diminishes after a few weeks or months, the swelling may persist.

      Treatment for Tietze’s syndrome involves the use of pain-relieving medications, such as NSAIDs. In more severe or persistent cases, local steroid injections may be beneficial.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and occasional chest pain over the past few weeks. During her fundoscopic examination, retinal hemorrhages and bilateral papilledema are observed. Her initial vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 89, blood pressure of 228/134, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, blood glucose level of 8.2, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15/15.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this particular case is malignant (accelerated) hypertension. The patient’s blood pressure is greater than 220/110, and they also have retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema. During the examination, it is important to look for other features such as the presence of a 3rd heart sound, ankle oedema, bilateral basal crepitations, and any focal neurological deficit.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. You examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. You examine his cardiovascular system and discover a slow-rising, low-volume pulse. His apex beat is sustained, and you can auscultate an ejection systolic murmur that is loudest in the aortic area that radiates to the carotids.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis is a common condition where the valve in the heart becomes narrowed due to the progressive calcification that occurs with age. This typically occurs around the age of 70. Other causes of aortic stenosis include calcification of a congenital bicuspid aortic valve and rheumatic fever.

      The symptoms of aortic stenosis can vary but commonly include difficulty breathing during physical activity, fainting, dizziness, chest pain (angina), and in severe cases, sudden death. However, it is also possible for aortic stenosis to be asymptomatic, meaning that there are no noticeable symptoms.

      When examining a patient with aortic stenosis, there are several signs that may be present. These include a slow-rising and low-volume pulse, a narrow pulse pressure, a sustained apex beat, a thrill (a vibrating sensation) in the area of the aorta, and an ejection click if the valve is pliable. Additionally, there is typically an ejection systolic murmur, which is a specific type of heart murmur, that can be heard loudest in the aortic area (located at the right sternal edge, 2nd intercostal space) and may radiate to the carotid arteries.

      It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from aortic sclerosis, which is a degeneration of the aortic valve but does not cause obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. Aortic sclerosis can be distinguished by the presence of a normal pulse character and the absence of radiation of the murmur.

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  • Question 26 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 72-year-old man who complains of difficulty...

    Correct

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 72-year-old man who complains of difficulty breathing. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During the examination, you observe a faint first heart sound (S1).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The first heart sound (S1) is created by vibrations produced when the mitral and tricuspid valves close. It occurs at the end of diastole and the start of ventricular systole, coming before the upstroke of the carotid pulsation.

      A sample of the normal heart sounds can be listened to here (courtesy of Littman stethoscopes).

      A loud S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Increased transvalvular gradient (e.g. mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis)
      – Increased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. tachycardia, hyperdynamic states like fever and thyrotoxicosis)
      – Shortened PR interval (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome)
      – Mitral valve prolapse
      – Thin individuals

      A soft S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Inappropriate apposition of the AV valves (e.g. mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation)
      – Prolonged PR interval (e.g. heart block, digoxin toxicity)
      – Decreased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. myocarditis, myocardial infarction)
      – Increased distance from the heart (e.g. obesity, emphysema, pericardial effusion)

      A split S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Right bundle branch block
      – LV pacing
      – Ebstein anomaly

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  • Question 27 - A 72 year old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening shortness of breath. You observe moderate mitral stenosis on the patient's most recent echocardiogram 10 months ago.

      What is a typical finding in individuals with mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Correct Answer: Loud 1st heart sound

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart. One of the key features of this condition is a loud first heart sound, which is often described as having an opening snap. This sound is typically heard during mid-late diastole and is best heard during expiration. Other signs of mitral stenosis include a low volume pulse, a flushed appearance of the cheeks (known as malar flush), and the presence of atrial fibrillation. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis may exhibit signs of pulmonary edema, such as crepitations (crackling sounds) in the lungs and the production of white or pink frothy sputum. It is important to note that a water hammer pulse is associated with a different condition called aortic regurgitation.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty in breathing. You observe that the patient was diagnosed with mitral regurgitation a year ago. Which arrhythmia is commonly seen in individuals with chronic mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      People with chronic mitral regurgitation often experience atrial fibrillation.

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

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  • Question 29 - A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling 111 for guidance regarding recent chest discomfort. The patient is worried that she might be experiencing a heart attack. During the assessment, you inquire about the nature of the pain, accompanying symptoms, and factors that worsen or alleviate the discomfort, prior to conducting a physical examination. Which history would be most suggestive of a acute myocardial infarct (AMI)?

      Your Answer: Systolic blood pressure ≥ 180 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Radiation of the pain to the right arm

      Explanation:

      The characteristic with the highest likelihood ratio for AMI is the radiation of chest pain to the right arm or both arms. Additionally, the history characteristics of cardiac pain also have a high likelihood ratio for AMI.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anteroseptal

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

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Cardiology (6/30) 20%
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