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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
      What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?

      Your Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?

      Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:

      Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
      This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.

      Colonoscopy
      A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.

      Duodenal Biopsy
      A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.

      Full Blood Count
      A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.

      In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has...

    Correct

    • You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?

      Your Answer: Hand hygiene

      Explanation:

      Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.

      Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency department with a fever and productive cough. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a pulse rate of 121 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 93% on air. Crackles are heard at the base of the left lung and wheezing is present throughout. A chest x-ray reveals a patchy opacity at the left base with minor blunting of the left costophrenic angle, enlarged airways in both lung fields, and fluid levels. Which organism is most likely responsible for this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant cause of lower respiratory tract infections (LRTI) in patients with cystic fibrosis. These patients develop bronchiectasis early in life, leading to frequent hospitalizations due to LRTI. Bronchiectasis causes sputum accumulation in the larger airways, leading to bacterial and fungal colonization. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common bacteria found in these patients, and should be considered when providing empirical treatment. If the patient is stable, antibiotic sensitivities should be obtained from a culture sample before starting treatment. However, an anti-pseudomonal agent such as piperacillin with tazobactam or ciprofloxacin should be used as part of empirical treatment for sepsis in cystic fibrosis patients. Staphylococcus aureus is less common in cystic fibrosis patients and is more associated with pre-existing influenza infection. Haemophilus pneumoniae is also an important pathogen in cystic fibrosis, but not as common as Pseudomonas. Haemophilus is the most common pathogen in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Legionella is more likely to cause infections in cystic fibrosis patients than in the general population, but is still less common than Pseudomonas. Klebsiella infection is rare and is usually associated with malnourished alcoholics rather than cystic fibrosis.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections in Humans

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the most common infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa include chest infections, skin infections (such as burns and wound infections), otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. It produces both an endotoxin and exotoxin A, which can cause fever, shock, and inhibit protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant pathogen that can cause a range of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins and resist antibiotics makes it a challenging organism to treat. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa promptly and appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of lower abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia. She has also noticed a creamy foul-smelling vaginal discharge. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.1 °C. The remainder of her observations are within normal limits. There is palpable lower abdominal tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bimanual examination elicits bilateral adnexal tenderness. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the causative organism?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that can cause deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal and adnexal tenderness. The most common cause of PID is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be diagnosed through nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT). This involves taking a urine sample and a swab from the vagina or cervix to test for the organism. While a blood culture may be considered for a febrile patient, it is not routinely used for diagnosing C. trachomatis. Vaginal microscopy and culture used to be the preferred method for diagnosis, but NAAT is now recommended. Testing vaginal pH is commonly used for vaginal infections, but is not useful for PID. Urine microscopy and culture is used for UTIs, but the presence of vaginal discharge and deep dyspareunia suggests PID instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise adults against influenza is accurate?

      Your Answer: It should be given intramuscularly

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      Influenza Vaccination: Who Should Get It and What to Expect

      Seasonal influenza remains a significant health concern in the UK, with the flu season typically starting in November. To prevent the spread of the virus, it is recommended that individuals receive the influenza vaccine between September and early November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B causing the majority of clinical disease.

      Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013. The children’s vaccine is given intranasally, with the first dose administered at 2-3 years and subsequent doses given annually. It is a live vaccine and is more effective than the injectable vaccine.

      Adults and at-risk groups are also recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually. This includes individuals over 65 years old, those with chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic kidney or liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, pregnant women, and those with a body mass index of 40 kg/m² or higher. Health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person may also be eligible for the vaccine.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine and cannot cause influenza. It is around 75% effective in adults, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels. The vaccine should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light. Contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. While a minority of patients may experience fever and malaise after receiving the vaccine, it is generally well-tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal...

    Correct

    • A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
      Which of the following is the most likely organism?

      Your Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers

      Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with...

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is true regarding anti-tuberculous therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding anti-tuberculous therapy?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin is a potent liver enzyme inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Visual acuity should be checked before starting ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin has a strong ability to induce liver enzymes. During the initial two months of treatment, Pyrazinamide should be administered, but it may cause hepatitis and gout as side effects. Isoniazid may cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

      In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

      While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
      On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.

      Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.

      Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.

      Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.

      In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
      On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.

      Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.

      Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.

      Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.

      Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to...

    Incorrect

    • You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mefloquine

      Correct Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication

      Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.

      Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.

      It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.

      The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increased shortness of breath, cough with green sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. She has a history of COPD and is currently on a salbutamol inhaler, combined glycopyrronium and indacaterol inhaler, and oral prednisolone to manage her symptoms. She is being evaluated for BIPAP home therapy. On examination, her respiratory rate is 22/min, oxygen saturations are 85% in room air, heart rate is 86/min, temperature is 37.7ºC, and blood pressure is 145/78 mmHg. What is the most likely causative organism for her presentation?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae, according to research. This bacterium’s strains that cause COPD exacerbations are more virulent and induce greater airway inflammation than those that only colonize patients without causing symptoms. Patients with COPD have reduced mucociliary clearance, making them susceptible to H. influenzae, which can lead to airway inflammation and increased breathing effort. Coxsackievirus is linked to hand, foot, and mouth disease, which primarily affects children but can also affect immunocompromised adults. This option is incorrect because the patient does not have the typical symptoms of sore throat, fever, and maculopapular rash on hands, foot, and mucosa. Influenza A virus is associated with the bird flu pandemic and is not the most common cause of infective exacerbations of COPD. Staphylococcus aureus is not commonly associated with infective exacerbations of COPD. This bacterium is more commonly seen in mild cases of skin infections or can lead to infective endocarditis and is associated with biofilms causing infection.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is identified to have a notifiable disease. The nurses suggest that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control (CCDC).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis (recognised as a notifiable disease)?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in England

      In England, Public Health England is responsible for detecting possible outbreaks of disease and epidemics as quickly as possible. The accuracy of diagnosis is not the primary concern, and since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is all that is required. Malaria, caused by various species of Plasmodium, is a notifiable disease. However, Mycoplasma pneumonia, HIV, necrotising fasciitis, and acute rheumatic fever are not notifiable diseases in England.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely unwell and has a high temperature, runny nose and inflamed eyes. The mother explains that her daughter has not had her vaccinations as she is worried about the long-term effects of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) jab.
      Which of the following best reflects the current understanding of measles infection?

      Your Answer: It is more dangerous in overcrowded households

      Explanation:

      Measles: Symptoms, Complications, and Prevention

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to serious respiratory complications such as pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and bronchiectasis. While it does not cause recurrent pneumothoraces, severe infection from prolonged exposure to infected siblings in overcrowded households can be fatal.

      Koplik’s spots, small red spots with bluish-white centers, are a characteristic late sign of measles infection that may appear on the mucous membranes of the mouth 1-2 days before the rash appears.

      Contrary to popular belief, lifelong immunity is often established after natural infection with measles. This is also the mechanism by which the MMR vaccine prevents measles infection in later life.

      Measles can also lead to corneal ulceration, especially in cases of vitamin A deficiency. High-dose oral vitamin A supplementation is recommended for all children with measles in developing countries to prevent this complication.

      Overall, prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid the serious complications of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
      Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
      Investigation Result Normal value
      CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/µl, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/µl
      CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15–0.4 g/l
      CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6–4.5 mmol/l
      CSF–plasma-glucose ratio 0.72 ≥ 0.66
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/µl, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old intravenous drug user who complains of pyrexia and malaise. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic, pale, and is coughing. A soft murmur is detected, and mild erythematous macular lesions are observed on both palms. Although the patient is experiencing general aches, there is no specific tenderness reported. Can you identify the probable diagnosis and explain the significance of the lesions?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Explanation:

      Janeway lesions are painless, red, and bloody lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are typically associated with infective endocarditis.

      Based on the patient’s history of intravenous drug use, fever, and heart murmur, it is likely that he has infective endocarditis. Both janeway lesions (caused by septic emboli) and osler nodes (caused by immune complex deposition) can be present in endocarditis. However, in this case, the lesions are more likely to be janeway lesions as they are not painful.

      Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages that can also be seen in endocarditis, but they would be detected during a fundoscopy exam.

      If the patient had meningitis, the rash would not be limited to the palms and would not disappear when pressed.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.

      Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and severe abdominal pain over the past 2 days. He has lost his appetite and is only tolerating small amounts of fluid over the past 24 hours. On examination, his heart rate is 118 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, temperature 38.1ºC and blood pressure is 104/74 mmHg. Significant left iliac fossa tenderness is noted. The patient is urgently admitted, and a stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection and severe colitis without perforation on imaging. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The treatment for life-threatening C. difficile infection involves administering vancomycin orally and metronidazole intravenously.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old female sex worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female sex worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a high fever and severe headache. During the physical examination, you observe neck stiffness and mild photophobia, prompting you to perform a lumbar puncture. The results of the lumbar puncture reveal the presence of a yeast and a capsule in the CSF stained with India ink.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans is a yeast that has a protective capsule and requires oxygen to survive. It can thrive in both plants and animals, and when it infects humans, it causes cryptococcosis. While the infection typically affects the lungs, it can also lead to fungal meningitis and encephalitis in individuals with weakened immune systems. HIV-positive patients are particularly susceptible to this infection, and given the patient’s history as a sex worker, it’s possible that they have an undiagnosed HIV infection that has progressed to AIDS. Additionally, cryptococcus neoformans can be detected through india ink staining during a lumbar puncture.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.

      Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.

      On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.

      A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral vancomycin for 10 days

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.

      Understanding Genital Herpes

      Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.

      To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.

      In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 26 - A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option...

    Correct

    • After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:

      Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.

      HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.

      Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.

      HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.

      Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer: Test vaginal pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:

      1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.

      2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.

      3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.

      4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.

      5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.

      In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following characteristics is the least typical of Trichomonas vaginalis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least typical of Trichomonas vaginalis?

      Your Answer: Urethritis in men

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      A pH level greater than 4.5 is linked to Trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
      Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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