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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department with facial swelling and difficulty breathing. Stridor and dilated neck veins were observed on examination. A CT scan revealed a mass obstructing the superior vena cava, which was later confirmed to be non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The patient received initial chemotherapy treatment for the lymphoma.
After five weeks, he returned to the emergency department complaining of a tingling and painful sensation in his hands and feet bilaterally. Additionally, he was observed to have a high steppage gait. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms during his second visit to the emergency department?Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:The standard chemotherapy regimen for non-Hodgkin lymphoma is R-CHOP, which includes Rituximab (in certain patients), cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin (vincristine), and prednisolone. However, one of the significant side effects of vincristine is chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy, which can cause tingling or numbness starting from the extremities. It can also lead to severe neuropathic pain and distal weakness, such as foot drop.
While Rituximab can cause adverse effects such as cardiotoxicity and infections, it is not commonly associated with neurological effects. Cyclophosphamide, on the other hand, can cause chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, and haemorrhagic cystitis due to its toxicity to the bladder epithelium.
Hydroxydaunorubicin is known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy, which can lead to heart failure and has a high mortality rate.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, which has been treated recently. What medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: Statins
Explanation:The Benefits and Risks of Statin Therapy
Statins are medications used to lower lipid levels in the body, which can significantly reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. However, one common side effect of this treatment is myalgia, or muscle pain. This side effect can be worsened by certain medications, such as macrolides and fibrates, as well as by hypothyroidism. While myalgia is generally not life-threatening, it can be uncomfortable and may lead some patients to discontinue statin therapy.
In rare cases, statin therapy can lead to a potentially lethal condition called rhabdomyolysis. This occurs when there is severe muscle infiltration and destruction, which can cause renal failure. While this side effect is rare, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks associated with statin therapy and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider. Overall, the benefits of statin therapy in reducing cardiovascular risk generally outweigh the risks, but it is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to monitor for any potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37-year-old British female presents to her GP with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. She has resided in the UK her entire life and has a lengthy history of insulin-dependent diabetes, which was diagnosed when she was 9 years old, as well as a recent diagnosis of pernicious anaemia. She maintains a balanced diet, drinks 10 units of alcohol per week, and has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 16 years. She reports a recent weight gain of 10kg.
During the examination, the GP notes a smooth and enlarged goitre. What is the most probable cause of her hypothyroidism?Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Hypothyroidism is a medical condition characterized by insufficient levels of thyroid hormones in the body, which can be caused by issues with the gland or hormones themselves.
Although iodine deficiency is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is unlikely to be the case for a healthy British female with a normal diet.
Medullary cell carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypothyroidism as it typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea and weight loss.
While smoking can increase the risk of thyroid conditions, it is not a direct cause of hypothyroidism.
Therefore, the possible causes of the patient’s hypothyroidism are narrowed down to either Hashimoto’s disease or a multinodular goiter. However, since the examination revealed a smooth goiter, a multinodular goiter can be ruled out.
Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that is often associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s disease, or pernicious anaemia. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Secondary hypothyroidism is rare and can occur due to pituitary failure or other associated conditions such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, or coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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John is a 26-year-old male with schizophrenia who is undergoing treatment. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely to cause parkinsonism, sustained muscle contractions, and severe restlessness as side effects?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Typical antipsychotics are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) than atypical antipsychotics. Haloperidol is the only typical antipsychotic among the given options, while aripiprazole, olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone are all atypical antipsychotics. EPSEs include Parkinsonism, akathisia, acute dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower risk of causing EPSEs than older antipsychotics, but they may still cause them at higher doses. However, atypical antipsychotics carry a higher risk of metabolic side effects such as weight gain, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidaemia. Examples of typical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include haloperidol, trifluperazine, chlorpromazine, pericyazine, levomepromazine, and flupentixol. Examples of atypical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, lurasidone, olanzapine, paliperidone, and quetiapine.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of constipation that has lasted for 5 days. Upon further inquiry, she mentions feeling weaker than usual this week and experiencing regular muscle cramps. During the examination, you observe reduced tone and hyporeflexia in both her upper and lower limbs. You suspect that her symptoms may be caused by hypokalaemia, which could be related to the diuretics she takes to manage her heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is known to be associated with hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Hypokalaemia is a potential side effect of loop diuretics such as furosemide. In contrast, potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone, triamterene, eplerenone, and amiloride are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia. The patient in the scenario is experiencing symptoms suggestive of hypokalaemia, including muscle weakness, cramps, and constipation. Hypokalaemia can also cause fatigue, myalgia, hyporeflexia, and in rare cases, paralysis.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following aims to address confounding factors in the analysis stage of a study?
Your Answer: Blinding
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:Understanding Confounding in Statistics
Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.
Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman has just had a right hemiarthroplasty and is now experiencing sudden onset of shortness of breath and sharp pleuritic pain on the right side of her chest. A chest x-ray is done as part of the initial evaluation, revealing a wedge-shaped opacification. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism is a medical condition that can be difficult to diagnose due to its varied symptoms and signs. While chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis are commonly associated with pulmonary embolism, only a small percentage of patients present with this textbook triad. The symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism can vary depending on the location and size of the embolism.
The PIOPED study conducted in 2007 found that tachypnea, or a respiratory rate greater than 16/min, was the most common clinical sign in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, occurring in 96% of cases. Other common signs included crackles in the chest (58%), tachycardia (44%), and fever (43%). Interestingly, the Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE uses tachycardia rather than tachypnea. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the varied symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old psychology student with a history of generalised anxiety disorder visits his doctor, reporting no improvement since the last visit and an increase in anxiety levels. The student is due to take his final exams in two weeks.
During the consultation, the doctor suggests discontinuing the current medication and starting clonidine. What is the mechanism of action of the new medication?Your Answer: Beta-2 receptor agonist
Correct Answer: Alpha-2 receptor agonist
Explanation:Clonidine works by activating alpha-2 receptors, while phenylephrine activates alpha-1 receptors and epinephrine activates beta-1 receptors. Bisoprolol, on the other hand, blocks beta-1 receptors, and salbutamol activates beta-2 receptors.
Adrenoceptor Agonists and Their Types
Adrenoceptor agonists are drugs that bind to and activate adrenoceptors, which are receptors found in the sympathetic nervous system. There are different types of adrenoceptor agonists, including alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2, and beta-3 agonists.
Alpha-1 agonists, such as phenylephrine, are used to treat conditions like hypotension and nasal congestion. Alpha-2 agonists, like clonidine, are used to treat hypertension, anxiety, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Beta-1 agonists, such as dobutamine, are used to treat heart failure and shock. Beta-2 agonists, like salbutamol, are used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Beta-3 agonists are currently being developed and may have a role in preventing obesity. Stimulation of beta-3 receptors causes lipolysis, which is the breakdown of fat. These drugs may be useful in promoting weight loss and improving metabolic health. Overall, adrenoceptor agonists have a wide range of therapeutic uses and are an important class of drugs in modern medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female presents to your clinic with chronic fatigue. She denies any weight gain or intolerance to cold. Upon investigation, the following results are obtained:
- HbA1c: 36 mmol/mol (< 42)
- Ferritin: 176 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12: 897 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate: 0.2 nmol/L (> 3.0)
- TSH: 4.23 mU/L (0.45 - 5.0)
What is the likely cause of the deficiency observed in this patient?Your Answer: Menopause
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is a well-established cause of folic acid deficiency, along with excess alcohol, methotrexate, and pregnancy. Menopause is not typically associated with folate deficiency, but rather a deficiency in vitamin B12. Smoking tobacco and laxative abuse are not known to cause folate deficiency. It is important to note that vitamin B12 and folic acid are linked in megaloblastic anemia, but administering vitamin B12 injections does not cause folate deficiency. Additionally, it is crucial to correct low vitamin B12 levels before supplementing with folate to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5 mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene in his lower limbs. Following the surgery, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which clotting factor will be depleted the fastest during this process?
Your Answer: Factor V and VIII
Explanation:D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-D
R-Rewritten
E-Explanations
W-Widespread
R-Reporting
I-Information
T-Transmission
E-ExposureM-Multiple sources
E-Extensive dissemination
D-DistributionRewriting and disseminating information can help to ensure that it is widely understood and accessible. This can be especially important in cases where there are multiple sources of information or when the information needs to be widely distributed. In some cases, such as with DIC, disseminating information can be critical for understanding and treating the condition.
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.
Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.
In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 29-year-old cyclist is brought to the emergency department by air ambulance following a car collision. She was intubated at the scene and currently has a Glasgow Coma Score of 8. Where is the control and regulation of the respiratory centers located?
Your Answer: Brainstem
Explanation:The brainstem houses the respiratory centres, which are responsible for regulating various aspects of breathing. These centres are located in the upper pons, lower pons and medulla oblongata.
The thalamus plays a role in sensory, motor and cognitive functions, and its axons connect with the cerebral cortex. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and helps maintain balance and posture. The parietal lobe processes sensory information, including discrimination and body orientation. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe.
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young age, further genetic investigations were ordered which showed a p53 mutation. Their family history was assessed and they have been diagnosed with Li-Fraumeni syndrome.
What other condition is this person most susceptible to developing?Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which is caused by a mutation in the p53 gene, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder that increases the risk of early-onset breast cancer, sarcoma, and leukaemia. While basal cell carcinomas are not linked to p53 mutations and are instead associated with UV exposure, bladder cancer is more strongly associated with smoking than with p53 mutations. Additionally, while the risk of lymphoma increases with age, individuals with a p53 mutation are more likely to develop leukaemia.
Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer
p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with acute onset of shortness of breath during a basketball game. He reports no history of trauma and is typically healthy. Upon examination, he appears tall and lean, and respiratory assessment reveals reduced breath sounds and hyper-resonant percussion notes on the right side. The trachea remains centrally located. A chest x-ray confirms a diagnosis of a collapsed lung due to a right-sided pneumothorax. What is the reason for the lung's failure to re-expand?
Your Answer: Decrease in intrapleural pressure
Correct Answer: Increase in intrapleural pressure
Explanation:The process of lung expansion relies on the negative pressure in the intrapleural space between the visceral and parietal pleura, which is present throughout respiration. This negative pressure pulls the lung towards the chest wall, allowing it to expand. However, if air enters the intrapleural space, the negative pressure is lost and the lung cannot fully reinflate. It is important to note that the intrapleural space is a potential space between the pleural surfaces, and there is typically no actual space present under normal circumstances.
Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines
Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.
The BTS recommends that patients with a rim of air less than 2 cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2 cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2 cm, but chest drain insertion is recommended if aspiration fails.
Patients with iatrogenic pneumothorax, which is caused by medical procedures, have a lower likelihood of recurrence than those with spontaneous pneumothorax. Observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be required in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion.
Patients with pneumothorax should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. They should also be aware of restrictions on air travel and scuba diving. The CAA recommends a waiting period of two weeks after successful drainage before air travel, while the BTS advises against scuba diving unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.
In summary, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax and the patient’s individual circumstances. Early intervention and appropriate follow-up can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?
Your Answer: Phosphofructokinase
Explanation:The Rate Limiting Step of Glycolysis
The conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6,bisphosphate is the main rate limiting step of the glycolysis pathway. This conversion is catalysed by the enzyme phosphofructokinase in the presence of ATP. However, excessive cellular concentrations of ATP can inhibit the activity of phosphofructokinase. This inhibition encourages the storage of excess glucose as glycogen instead of making excessive ATP in times of abundance. On the other hand, when there is cellular abundance of ATP but it is undergoing rapid degradation to AMP, the rising levels of AMP reduce the effect of high concentrations of ATP on the inhibition of the enzyme. Although several other steps in the glycolysis pathway are under control or inhibition in times of cellular ATP abundance or due to an accumulation of the products of glycolysis, phosphofructokinase is considered the main rate limiting step of glycolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least probable outcome associated with severe atrophic gastritis in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcers
Explanation:A duodenal ulcer is unlikely to occur as a result of the decrease in gastric acid. However, it should be noted that gastric polyps may develop (refer to below).
Types of Gastritis and Their Features
Gastritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the stomach lining. There are different types of gastritis, each with its own unique features. Type A gastritis is an autoimmune condition that results in the reduction of parietal cells and hypochlorhydria. This type of gastritis is associated with circulating antibodies to parietal cells and can lead to B12 malabsorption. Type B gastritis, on the other hand, is antral gastritis that is caused by infection with Helicobacter pylori. This type of gastritis can lead to peptic ulceration and intestinal metaplasia in the stomach, which requires surveillance endoscopy.
Reflux gastritis occurs when bile refluxes into the stomach, either post-surgical or due to the failure of pyloric function. This type of gastritis is characterized by chronic inflammation and foveolar hyperplasia. Erosive gastritis is caused by agents that disrupt the gastric mucosal barrier, such as NSAIDs and alcohol. Stress ulceration occurs as a result of mucosal ischemia during hypotension or hypovolemia. The stomach is the most sensitive organ in the GI tract to ischemia following hypovolemia, and prophylaxis with acid-lowering therapy and sucralfate may minimize complications. Finally, Menetrier’s disease is a pre-malignant condition characterized by gross hypertrophy of the gastric mucosal folds, excessive mucous production, and hypochlorhydria.
In summary, gastritis is a condition that can have different types and features. It is important to identify the type of gastritis to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and tiredness. She reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. She maintains an active lifestyle and attends fitness classes weekly. Her medical history includes hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, constipation, and depression.
The physician orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Hb: 113 g/l
- Platelets: 239 * 109/l
- WBC: 6 * 109/l
- Neuts: 2 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 2 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.3 * 109/l
- Na+: 142 mmol/l
- K+: 3.2 mmol/l
- Bilirubin: 12 µmol/l
- ALP: 23 u/l
- ALT: 10 u/l
- γGT: 23 u/l
- Urea: 4 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 50 µmol/l
- Albumin: 30 g/l
Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Heparin
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Prolonged use of senna increases the risk of hypokalemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood results. The symptoms of mild hypokalemia are non-specific and include fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation, and rhabdomyolysis. Given the patient’s medical history of constipation, it is likely that she has been taking a laxative, which could be either osmotic or a stimulant. Both types of laxatives are known to cause hypokalemia, and in this case, senna is the likely culprit.
Heparin can cause hyperkalemia, especially when used in conjunction with spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and trimethoprim. Heparin inhibits aldosterone synthesis, leading to increased potassium retention and sodium excretion. This effect is more pronounced in elderly individuals, diabetics, and those with renal failure. The risk of hyperkalemia increases with higher doses, prolonged use, and unfractionated heparin therapy.
Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body without depleting potassium. Amiloride causes hyperkalemia by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at various points in the kidneys, which reduces potassium and hydrogen secretion and subsequent excretion.
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that is known to cause hyperkalemia and is therefore not the cause of the patient’s hypokalemia.
Understanding Laxatives
Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.
Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.
Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.
In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a worldwide spread of influenzae?
Your Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:Key Terms in Epidemiology
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the name of the muscle that performs hip flexion and knee extension?
Your Answer: Psoas major
Correct Answer: Rectus femoris
Explanation:Muscles of the Hip and Knee Joints
The rectus femoris muscle originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine and the ilium just above the acetabulum. It then inserts into the quadriceps femoris tendon. Similarly, the sartorius muscle also originates from the ilium and inserts into the quadriceps femoris tendon, but it functions to flex the leg at the knee joint. On the other hand, the iliacus and psoas major muscles only provide flexion of the hip joint. Lastly, the vastus medialis muscle is responsible for extending the knee joint. the origins and insertions of these muscles can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of hip and knee joint injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient is seeking treatment for their heart failure at the cardiology outpatient clinic. The medical team has decided to prescribe a medication that will enhance their heart rate and strength.
Which adrenoceptor class should be the focus of the treatment?Your Answer: Alpha 2
Correct Answer: Beta 1
Explanation:Beta 1 adrenoceptors are responsible for increasing both heart rate and force, while alpha 1 adrenoceptors cause salivary secretion and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Alpha 2 adrenoceptors are located presynaptically and work to inhibit neurotransmitter release. Beta 2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are responsible for relaxing smooth muscle in the respiratory tree, GI tract, and vasculature.
Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.
Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.
Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.
All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.
In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss, fevers, and night sweats that have persisted for several months. Upon examination, he has non-tender lymphadenopathy. He is referred to a specialist and eventually diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. At the haematological cancer multidisciplinary team meeting, it is decided to initiate vincristine treatment.
At what stage of the cell cycle does this medication take effect?Your Answer: Prophase
Correct Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:Vincristine disrupts the metaphase stage of the cell cycle. This is when chromosomes align in the middle of the cell and begin to separate. By binding to the tubulin protein, Vincristine prevents the formation of microtubules, which stops the initiation of chromosome separation. As a result, the cell undergoes apoptosis. Vincristine does not act during anaphase, cytokinesis, or prophase.
Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division
Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A woman is advised to start taking folic acid supplements before getting pregnant to prevent neural tube defects. At what stage of pregnancy are these defects most likely to occur?
Your Answer: Week 1
Correct Answer: Week 4
Explanation:The closure of the neural tube takes place in the 4th week of embryonic development. Prior to this, during the first three weeks of pregnancy, the trilaminar disc has not yet formed, making it too early for neural tube closure to occur. The neural tube originates from a specialized part of the ectoderm.
During the fourth week, the embryo becomes a trilaminar germ disc, marking the beginning of primary neurulation. At this stage, folds develop at the lateral edges of the neural plate, which then rise and fold at hinge points, ultimately meeting and fusing in the midline.
In the fifth week, secondary neurulation occurs at the caudal end of the embryo. This process is distinct from neural tube closure and involves a rearrangement of cells and canalisation.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of a disrupted menstrual cycle, decreased libido, and lactation despite never being pregnant. Upon blood testing, she is found to have elevated serum prolactin levels. Which medication is associated with causing hyperprolactinemia?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia in Women
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that affects women and is characterized by an excess of prolactin hormone in the body. This condition can present with various symptoms, including anovulatory infertility, reduced menstruation, production of breast milk, reduced libido, and vaginal dryness. The condition is caused by either disinhibition of the anterior pituitary or excess production due to a pituitary tumor. A serum prolactin concentration greater than 5000 mIU/L suggests a pituitary adenoma.
Moreover, hyperprolactinaemia can also be caused by certain prescription medications, including antihistamines, butyrophenones, cimetidine, methyldopa, metoclopramide, and phenothiazines. These medications are strongly associated with the condition and can lead to an increase in prolactin levels in the body.
It is important to understand the symptoms and causes of hyperprolactinaemia in women to seek appropriate medical attention and treatment. With proper diagnosis and management, women can effectively manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 20-year-old man experienced recurrent episodes of breathlessness and palpitations lasting approximately 20 minutes and resolving gradually. No unusual physical signs were observed. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for Sudden Onset of Symptoms
When considering the sudden onset of symptoms, drug abuse is an unlikely cause as the symptoms are short-lived and not accompanied by other common drug abuse symptoms. Paroxysmal SVT would present with sudden starts and stops, rather than a gradual onset. Personality disorder and thyrotoxicosis would both lead to longer-lasting symptoms and other associated symptoms. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for sudden onset symptoms would be panic disorder. It is important to consider all possible causes and seek medical attention to properly diagnose and treat any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is being evaluated on the ward. He was admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and required IV antibiotics. The results of his blood tests taken this morning are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 143 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium (K+): 6.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 115 µmol/L (55 - 120)
An urgent ECG is ordered, which reveals peaked T waves and a loss of P waves.
What is the immediate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Calcium resonium
Correct Answer: IV calcium gluconate
Explanation:The correct treatment for stabilizing the cardiac membrane in a patient with hyperkalaemia and ECG changes, such as peaked T waves and loss of P waves, is IV calcium gluconate. This is the first-line treatment option, as it can effectively stabilize the cardiac membrane and prevent arrhythmias. Other treatment options, such as calcium resonium, combined insulin/dextrose infusion, and nebulised salbutamol, can be used to treat hyperkalaemia, but only after IV calcium gluconate has been given.
Managing Hyperkalaemia: A Step-by-Step Guide
Hyperkalaemia is a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if left untreated. To manage hyperkalaemia, it is important to address any underlying factors that may be contributing to the condition, such as acute kidney injury, and to stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. Treatment can be categorised based on the severity of the hyperkalaemia, which is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the patient’s potassium levels.
ECG changes are also important in determining the appropriate management for hyperkalaemia. Peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern are all associated with hyperkalaemia and should be evaluated in all patients with new hyperkalaemia.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body. IV calcium gluconate is used to stabilise the myocardium, while insulin/dextrose infusion and nebulised salbutamol can be used to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Calcium resonium, loop diuretics, and dialysis can be used to remove potassium from the body.
In practical terms, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment, including IV calcium gluconate to stabilise the myocardium and insulin/dextrose infusion to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Other treatments, such as nebulised salbutamol, may also be used to temporarily lower serum potassium levels. Further management may involve stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying causes, and lowering total body potassium through the use of calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the sacrifice of the obturator nerve. Which muscle is the least likely to be affected by this procedure?
Your Answer: Gracilis
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The accessory obturator nerve supplies the pectineus muscle in the population.
Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve
The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.
The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.
The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old African-American boy presents to the physician for a follow-up after a recent episode of streptococcal pneumonia. The boy has a history of multiple similar episodes in the past 2 years. He was diagnosed with sickle cell anaemia at the age of 2 years and is not currently on any medications or vaccinations. Despite having no complaints, routine laboratory studies reveal mild anaemia and a peripheral smear shows numerous red blood cells with basophilic inclusions.
What is the most likely complication that led to the peripheral smear findings in this patient?Your Answer: Vaso-occlusive crisis
Correct Answer: Autosplenectomy
Explanation:If Howell-Jolly bodies are present in the peripheral smear of a sickle cell anemia patient, it indicates that they have undergone autosplenectomy. Sickle cell disease can lead to various complications, including vaso-occlusive crisis, parvovirus B19 infections, splenic sequestration, and eventually, autosplenectomy. However, based on the absence of symptoms and other factors, vaso-occlusive crisis, parvovirus B19 infection, and splenic sequestration are unlikely causes in this case.
Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films
Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.
Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.
In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume?
Your Answer: 200 g
Correct Answer: 50 g
Explanation:The Importance of Carbohydrates in the Diet
Carbohydrates are essential for the body as they provide fuel for the brain, red blood cells, and the renal medulla. Although the average daily intake of carbohydrates is around 180 g/day, the body can function on a much lower intake of 30-50 g/day. During pregnancy or lactation, the recommended minimum daily requirement of carbohydrates increases to around 100 g/day.
When carbohydrate intake is restricted, the body can produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, which is the process of making glucose from other fuel sources such as protein and fat. However, when carbohydrate intake is inadequate, the body produces ketones during the oxidation of fats. While ketones can be used by the brain as an alternative fuel source to glucose, prolonged or excessive reliance on ketones can lead to undesirable side effects. Ketones are acidic and can cause systemic acidosis.
It is important to note that most people consume 200-400 g/day of carbohydrates, which is much higher than the recommended minimum daily requirement. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates in the appropriate amount to ensure optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of oxygen in the blood that is attached to haemoglobin?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Calculation of Oxygen in Blood
The majority of oxygen in the blood is bound to haemoglobin, with the exact amount varying based on the oxygen saturation and haemoglobin level. To calculate the amount of oxygen per litre of blood, the formula (13.9 × Hb × sats/100) + (PaO2 × 0.03) can be used. For example, an average man with an Hb of 14, saturations of 98% on room air, and a PaO2 of 12 would have 191 ml of oxygen per litre of blood. It is important to note that only 0.36 ml of this oxygen is dissolved in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe damage to the abdominal aorta. The surgeons opt to place a vascular clamp just below the diaphragm to control the bleeding. What is the potential risk of injury to one of the vessels during this procedure?
Your Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries
Explanation:The inferior phrenic arteries, which are the first branches of the abdominal aorta, are most vulnerable. On the other hand, the superior phrenic arteries are located in the thorax. The area around the diaphragmatic hiatus could be a valuable location for aortic occlusion, but keeping the clamp on for more than 10-15 minutes typically results in unfavorable results.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. He has a unique immunodeficiency disorder that results in decreased levels of CD4 T cells. This is caused by a deficiency in the molecule responsible for promoting their growth by displaying bacterial antigens.
What is the most probable deficiency?Your Answer: MHC class II
Explanation:Helper T cells recognize antigens that are presented by MHC class II molecules, which interact with CD4 receptors to initiate a response. A deficiency in MHC class II molecules, as seen in bare lymphocyte syndrome, can lead to a deficiency in T helper cells. On the other hand, MHC class I molecules interact with CD8 receptors to initiate a response from cytotoxic T cells. It is important to note that antibodies do not present antigens, and while cytokines such as interferon and interleukins play a role in the immune response, they are not specific to individual infections.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 31
Incorrect
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In a clinical study evaluating the effectiveness of a new medication for reducing cholesterol levels, the mean age of the placebo group was 50 with a standard deviation of 3.
If the data is normally distributed, what percentage of participants in the placebo group were over the age of 55?Your Answer: 7.5%
Correct Answer: 2.5%
Explanation:I’m sorry, your input is not clear. Please provide more information or context for me to understand what you are asking for.
The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 32
Correct
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A researcher is studying Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML). She creates a fluorescent DNA probe that can attach to the BCR-ABL fusion gene to observe the Philadelphia translocation directly.
What is the molecular method employed by the scientist?Your Answer: Fluorescence In Situ Hybridisation (FISH)
Explanation:The technique of fluorescence in situ hybridization involves the use of fluorescent DNA or RNA probes that attach to particular gene locations of interest, allowing for the direct observation of chromosomal abnormalities.
Overview of Molecular Biology Techniques
Molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. These techniques are used to detect and analyze these molecules in various biological samples. The most commonly used techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins. This technique involves the use of gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins based on their 3-D structure. It is commonly used in the confirmatory HIV test.
ELISA is a biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies. This technique involves attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody or antigen being detected. If the antigen or antibody is present in the sample, the sample changes colour, indicating a positive result. ELISA is commonly used in the initial HIV test.
In summary, molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules. These techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and ELISA. Each technique is used to detect specific molecules in biological samples and is commonly used in various diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 33
Correct
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A 42-year-old man from Turkey visits his doctor complaining of chronic breathlessness and a dry cough that has been worsening over the past 7 months. He has no significant medical history except for an allergy to penicillin. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. He works as a taxi driver and lives alone, but he is an avid collector of exotic pigeons and enjoys a cup of coffee every morning. The doctor suspects that his symptoms may be due to exposure to what causes pigeon fancier's lung?
Your Answer: Avian proteins
Explanation:Bird fanciers’ lung is caused by avian proteins found in bird droppings, which can lead to hypersensitivity pneumonitis. This is a type of pulmonary disorder that results from an inflammatory reaction to inhaling an allergen, which can be organic or inorganic particles such as animal or plant proteins, certain chemicals, or microbes. Similarly, other types of lung diseases such as tobacco worker’s lung, farmer’s lung, and hot tub lung are also caused by exposure to specific allergens in the environment.
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, is a condition that occurs when the lungs are damaged due to hypersensitivity to inhaled organic particles. This damage is thought to be caused by immune-complex mediated tissue damage, although delayed hypersensitivity may also play a role. Examples of this condition include bird fanciers’ lung, farmers lung, malt workers’ lung, and mushroom workers’ lung. Symptoms can be acute or chronic and include dyspnoea, dry cough, fever, lethargy, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through imaging, bronchoalveolar lavage, and serologic assays for specific IgG antibodies. Management involves avoiding the triggering factors and oral glucocorticoids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male patient is experiencing acute renal failure, fever, weight loss, and livedo reticularis. Upon renal biopsy, there is evidence of neutrophilic and eosinophilic infiltration in artery walls with fibrinoid necrosis. What is the most probable circulating antibody present in this patient?
Your Answer: AMA
Correct Answer: ANCA
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa and Associated Antibodies
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium-sized arteries, particularly those in the renal vasculature. Patients with PAN may experience vague symptoms such as malaise, weight loss, anemia, fever, and non-specific pains. However, more specific features of PAN include acute renal failure with beading of the renal vessel on angiography, livedo reticularis, the presence of pANCA in the blood, and granulomas with eosinophilic infiltrate on biopsy. While the majority of PAN cases are idiopathic, it can also be associated with hepatitis B virus infection.
In addition to PAN, there are other autoimmune or inflammatory conditions that may be associated with specific antibodies. For example, anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA) is strongly associated with primary biliary cirrhosis, while Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are non-specific and may be present in conditions such as SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, post-infection, and inflammatory bowel disease. Therefore, the presence of certain antibodies can aid in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic to discuss her treatment options after being diagnosed with Huntington's disease. The physician informs her that excess triplets of nucleotides are responsible for causing this condition. Can you identify the biochemical makeup of these DNA units?
Your Answer: One sugar, two amines and two phosphates molecules
Correct Answer: One sugar, one amine and one phosphate molecules
Explanation:A man with Kearns-Sayer syndrome, a mitochondrial disease, will not pass on the condition to any of his children. This disease is characterized by ptosis, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, cardiac conduction defects, and a proximal myopathy. Diagnosis is confirmed through muscle biopsy and polymerase chain reaction analysis of mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited through defects in DNA present in the mitochondria, which are only passed down through the maternal line. Other examples of mitochondrial diseases include MERRF, MELAS, and MIDD.
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of abdominal pain, fatigue and bruising. After various investigations, she is diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukaemia. What is the probable pathophysiology responsible for her abdominal pain?
Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Correct Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Massive splenomegaly can be a symptom of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), which is the known diagnosis of this woman. Left-sided swelling, increased tendency to bruise or bleed, and abdominal pain may also be present. However, a duodenal ulcer is more likely to cause indigestion and is not commonly associated with CML. While hepatomegaly may occur in CML, it is less common and less marked than splenomegaly. Large bowel obstruction is not typically associated with CML, but may be a presenting symptom of undiagnosed colorectal cancer. Although splenic rupture can cause abdominal pain, it is more likely to lead to an acute presentation due to complications of acute intra-abdominal bleeding.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between the ages of 60-70 years and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in chronic phase CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogeneic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is undergoing investigation for coeliac disease and has recently undergone biopsies of both the small and large intestinal linings.
What can be found in the lining of the small intestine but not in that of the large intestine during a normal biopsy?Your Answer: Goblet cells
Correct Answer: Villi
Explanation:The basic structure of the linings in the small and large intestines is similar, consisting of mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa. Both intestines have muscularis mucosae within the mucosa, myenteric nerve plexus innervating the muscularis externa, columnar epithelial cells lining the mucosa, and goblet cells that secrete mucins. However, each intestine has specialized functions. The small intestine is responsible for digesting and absorbing nutrients, which is facilitated by the presence of villi and microvilli on its epithelium, providing a large surface area. These structures are not present in the large intestine.
Layers of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Their Functions
The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is composed of four layers, each with its own unique function. The innermost layer is the mucosa, which can be further divided into three sublayers: the epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. The epithelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting mucus, while the lamina propria contains blood vessels and immune cells. The muscularis mucosae helps to move food along the GI tract.
The submucosa is the layer that lies beneath the mucosa and contains Meissner’s plexus, which is responsible for regulating secretion and blood flow. The muscularis externa is the layer that lies beneath the submucosa and contains Auerbach’s plexus, which controls the motility of GI smooth muscle. Finally, the outermost layer of the GI tract is either the serosa or adventitia, depending on whether the organ is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The serosa is responsible for secreting fluid to lubricate the organs, while the adventitia provides support and protection. Understanding the functions of each layer is important for understanding the overall function of the GI tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A pair comes to your endocrine clinic. The woman has achondroplasia and her partner does not. They want to discuss with you the factors to consider before having a baby. What is accurate about achondroplasia?
Your Answer: It is caused by a mutation in the growth hormone (GH) receptor
Correct Answer: It is unlikely to respond to growth hormone therapy
Explanation:Achondroplasia is a condition that causes dwarfism due to a growth disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, and most affected individuals can expect to have a normal lifespan. However, if both parents have achondroplasia, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit two copies of the gene, which can be fatal either before or shortly after birth. The cause of achondroplasia is a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor (FGF) receptor, which means that growth hormone therapy is unlikely to be effective.
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.
There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company is conducting tests on a new insulin formulation. As part of their analysis, they have verified that tyrosine kinase receptors are activated by insulin. What is the impact of these receptors on the target molecules?
Your Answer: Target molecule dephosphorylation
Correct Answer: Target molecule phosphorylation
Explanation:Activation of tyrosine kinase receptors leads to the phosphorylation of target molecules, which can result in various effects such as cell growth and differentiation. Insulin is an example of a drug that acts through tyrosine kinase receptors. It is important to note that target molecule oxidation, lysis, and reduction are not processes typically associated with tyrosine kinase receptor activation.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of right arm weakness that he noticed upon waking up after a night out. He is concerned that he may be experiencing a stroke, as his uncle had died from one.
During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's right arm is drooping to the side. There is a decrease in power for elbow and wrist extension, but elbow and wrist flexion remain intact.
Which anatomical structure is most likely damaged, resulting in this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Left prefrontal cortex
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness and blurred vision. She works as a librarian, drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week, and has smoked about 25 cigarettes a day for 35 years.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be elevated at 152/98 mmHg. There are reduced breath sounds over the area of the right lower lobe. Some of her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 120 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 420 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 9.1 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+ 148 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55-120)
- 24-hour urine free cortisol 260 ug/l (10-100)
- Glucose 17.8 mmol/l (4.0-7.0)
She mentions that, aside from a persistent cough due to smoking, which occasionally produces blood, she feels fine.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Adrenal adenoma
Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma
Explanation:A small cell lung carcinoma that secretes ACTH can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, as seen in this patient. The history and examination findings suggest lung cancer, and the raised cortisol level can be explained by the paraneoplastic syndrome caused by ACTH release. Muscle weakness and blurred vision are typical symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome. Squamous cell lung carcinoma and adrenal adenoma are less likely causes, while Cushing’s disease is not applicable in this case.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of vertigo. He mentions having a mild upper respiratory tract infection one week prior. Which structure is most likely responsible for the accompanying nausea?
Your Answer: Medulla
Correct Answer: Vestibular system of the inner ear
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient is experiencing viral labyrinthitis, which is a common condition that occurs after an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition causes inflammation in the vestibular system of the inner ear, leading to confusion or failure of proprioceptive signals to the brain, resulting in vertigo.
During retching, the antrum of the stomach contracts while the cardia and fundus relax. Although vagal stimulation can arise from the stomach, it does not cause the spinning sensation associated with vertigo.
The area postrema is located in the medulla and contains the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which is involved in receiving and transmitting signals related to the vomiting reflex. However, the specific signal for vertigo arises from the vestibular system. The pons also plays a role in communicating sensory inputs related to vomiting.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You come across a young woman who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is curious about what her future may look like with the condition.
Your Answer: Not associated with prognosis
Correct Answer: Associated with a poor prognosis
Explanation:A prodromal phase characterized by social withdrawal is linked to a negative prognosis in individuals with schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying outcomes for individuals. There are certain factors that have been associated with a poor prognosis, meaning a less favorable outcome. These factors include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant for the onset of symptoms. It is important to note that these factors do not guarantee a poor outcome, but they may increase the likelihood of it. It is also important to seek treatment and support regardless of these factors, as early intervention and ongoing care can greatly improve outcomes for individuals with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient visits his GP with a complaint of progressive weakness in his right arm for the past 3 months. He reports that he suffered a humerus fracture after a fall and has since experienced difficulty in straightening his arm, especially against resistance. Upon examination, his sensation is normal, but he exhibits significantly reduced extension in his forearm, wrist, and fingers.
Which nerve is the most probable cause of the injury?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies all the extensor muscles in the arm, and a recent humerus fracture in this patient may have caused damage to this nerve. Midshaft humeral fractures can put the radial nerve at risk as it travels down the arm in the radial groove on the surface of the humerus.
In contrast, the axillary nerve is most commonly damaged in humeral head dislocations or fractures of the humeral neck, resulting in weakened shoulder abduction or reduced sensation in the inferior region of the deltoid muscle.
The median nerve is typically affected at the wrist and is commonly injured in carpal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms of median nerve damage include weakened pronation (if injured at the elbow), paralysis of the thenar muscles (if injured at the wrist), or loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral 3½ fingers.
Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve is rare and usually occurs as part of a larger injury to the brachial plexus. Symptoms of musculocutaneous nerve damage include weakened elbow flexion or loss of sensation to the lateral part of the forearm.
Finally, a medial epicondyle fracture can damage the ulnar nerve, resulting in weakness of the majority of the intrinsic hand muscles or loss of sensation to the medial 1½ fingers.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man arrives at the emergency department stating that his severe depression has worsened due to a recent breakup. He admits to taking multiple packs of paracetamol in the past 24 hours but denies taking any other medications. As per national guidelines, you initiate the appropriate therapy to prevent liver damage.
What is the mechanism behind this treatment?Your Answer: Chelates paracetamol from the blood
Correct Answer: Replenish glutathione stores within the liver
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose occurs when the body’s glutathione stores are depleted, leading to an increase in the production of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), a highly toxic molecule. In therapeutic doses, the liver produces small amounts of NAPQI, which is quickly metabolized into safer compounds by reacting with glutathione. However, in cases of overdose, the liver’s supply of glutathione is exhausted, resulting in the accumulation of NAPQI and subsequent liver damage. To counteract this, N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) is used as a precursor to glutathione, which helps convert NAPQI into less toxic metabolites. Chelation medications like penicillamine can remove heavy metals from the blood, but there are no drugs that can speed up the excretion of paracetamol. Methionine, an amino acid important in angiogenesis, is not relevant to the management of paracetamol overdose. While many drugs activate CYP450, NAC is not one of them, and upregulating this pathway could actually worsen the outcomes of an overdose since it produces the toxic NAPQI by-product.
Paracetamol Overdose and Metabolic Pathways
Paracetamol overdose can lead to saturation of the liver’s conjugation system, which normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. This saturation results in the oxidation of paracetamol by P450 mixed function oxidases, producing a toxic metabolite known as N-acetyl-B-benzoquinone imine. Glutathione usually acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin, forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. However, if glutathione stores run out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death. This process occurs not only in hepatocytes but also in the renal tubules.
To manage paracetamol overdose, N-acetyl cysteine is used as it is a precursor of glutathione and can increase hepatic glutathione production. It is important to note that there is a lower threshold for treating patients who take P450 inducing medications, such as phenytoin or rifampicin, due to the increased risk of paracetamol overdose. Proper management of paracetamol overdose is crucial to prevent liver and renal damage, and N-acetyl cysteine plays a vital role in this process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 46
Incorrect
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As a medical student on placement in the pathology lab, you are observing the pathologist examine a section of a blood vessel. Specifically, what can be found within the tunica media of a blood vessel?
Your Answer: Collagen
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:Artery Histology: Layers of Blood Vessel Walls
The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. The innermost layer, the tunica intima, is made up of endothelial cells that are separated by gap junctions. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and from the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer, the tunica adventitia, contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen. This layer is responsible for providing support and protection to the blood vessel. The vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the larger blood vessels. The fibroblast and collagen provide structural support to the vessel wall. Understanding the histology of arteries is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 47
Correct
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As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation by her GP after experiencing chest pain for 12 hours. She informs you that she had a blood clot in her early 30s following lower limb surgery and was previously treated with warfarin. Her CHA2DS2‑VASc score is 3. What is the first-line anticoagulant recommended to prevent future stroke in this patient?
Your Answer: Edoxaban
Explanation:According to the 2021 NICE guidelines on preventing stroke in individuals with atrial fibrillation, DOACs should be the first-line anticoagulant therapy offered. The correct answer is ‘edoxaban’. ‘Aspirin’ is not appropriate for managing atrial fibrillation as it is an antiplatelet agent. ‘Low molecular weight heparin’ and ‘unfractionated heparin’ are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this case as they require subcutaneous injections.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old patient visits the GP clinic with her mother complaining of a sore throat and fever. After examination, the GP diagnoses the patient with viral tonsillitis and prescribes paracetamol to reduce the fever. The mother asks the GP about the mechanism by which her daughter's body will combat the infection. Which cytokine is responsible for the differentiation of Th0 cells into Th1 cells?
Your Answer: IL-4
Correct Answer: IL-12
Explanation:IL-12’s primary role is to stimulate the transformation of naive T cells into Th1 cells. It is not responsible for the production of interferon-γ, which is a product of Th1 cells. Additionally, IL-4 is responsible for the differentiation of Th0 cells into Th1 cells.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur?
Your Answer: Mesenteric vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Acute embolism affecting the superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Mesenteric infarcts can be caused by various factors such as prolonged atrial fibrillation, ventricular aneurysms, and post myocardial infarction.
Understanding Mesenteric Vessel Disease
Mesenteric vessel disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels supplying the intestines. It is primarily caused by arterial embolism, which can result in infarction of the colon. The most common type of mesenteric vessel disease is acute mesenteric embolus, which is characterized by sudden onset abdominal pain followed by profuse diarrhea. Other types include acute on chronic mesenteric ischemia, mesenteric vein thrombosis, and low flow mesenteric infarction.
Diagnosis of mesenteric vessel disease involves serological tests such as WCC, lactate, CRP, and amylase, as well as CT angiography scanning in the arterial phase with thin slices. Management of the condition depends on the severity of symptoms, with overt signs of peritonism requiring laparotomy and mesenteric vein thrombosis being treated with medical management using IV heparin. In cases where surgery is necessary, limited resection of necrotic bowel may be performed with the aim of relooking laparotomy at 24-48 hours.
The prognosis for mesenteric vessel disease is generally poor, with the best outlook being for acute ischaemia from an embolic event where surgery occurs within 12 hours. Survival rates may be as high as 50%, but this falls to 30% with treatment delay. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if symptoms of mesenteric vessel disease are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 50
Correct
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Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?
Your Answer: The posterior aspect of the patella is extrasynovial
Explanation:The knee is the largest synovial joint in the body and its posterior aspect is located within the synovial membrane. In case of an ACL injury, the knee may swell significantly and cause severe pain due to its extensive innervation from the femoral, sciatic, and obturator nerves. When fully extended, all ligaments are stretched and the knee is in a locked position.
The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.
What medication will be started?Your Answer: Letrozole
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 30-year-old man has returned from a trip to Spain where he used spa pools. He is now experiencing a cough, fever, and flu-like symptoms for the past 10 days. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: influenzae A
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Causes and Transmission of Legionella Infection
In a healthy individual, infection can be caused by a virulent organism such as Legionella pneumophila, which can lead to atypical pneumonia. However, Legionella can also cause a less severe flu-like illness known as Pontiac fever. influenzae A is another possibility, but it typically lasts for only four to five days and is not associated with water facilities. TB is unlikely, as it rarely presents with flu-like symptoms. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a form of typical pneumonia that is less likely to occur in a fit and healthy young man, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is usually acquired in a hospital setting.
Legionella is transmitted through inhalation of aerosols from contaminated water sources, such as spa pools. The bacteria thrives in water temperatures between 20°C and 40°C. It is important to note that Legionella is a notifiable disease, and clinicians should inform Public Health England (previously the Health Protection Agency) in their locality when a case is diagnosed. By the causes and transmission of Legionella infection, individuals can take steps to prevent its spread and protect their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 53
Correct
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A 33-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of occasional rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and fatigue. He reports that his symptoms have been progressively worsening for the past year, and he is worried because his father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at the age of 56.
Upon referral for a colonoscopy, the patient is found to have numerous benign polyps in his large colon.
Which gene mutation is linked to this condition?Your Answer: APC
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which is a tumour suppressor gene. This hereditary condition is characterised by the presence of numerous benign polyps in the colon, which increases the risk of developing colon cancer. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is not related to the symptoms of FAP. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is associated with mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes such as MLH1, but it does not involve the development of numerous benign polyps. Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disease caused by a mutation in the TP53 tumour suppressor gene, which is associated with the development of various cancers. Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a mutation in a different gene and is not related to FAP.
Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided chest pain following a fall from a ladder while doing some home repairs. During a chest X-ray, it is discovered that he has a cervical rib, which increases his risk of developing thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS).
What is the most precise information to provide to the patient regarding this condition?Your Answer: It is associated with breathing difficulties
Correct Answer: It involves compression of the vessels and/or nerves that supply his arm
Explanation:Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition where the brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein are compressed at the thoracic outlet. Those with cervical ribs are more likely to develop TOS.
TOS does not impact the lungs, so breathing problems or pneumothorax are not a concern for patients.
Regardless of which structure is affected, TOS typically causes pain in the arm rather than the shoulder.
If the thoracic duct becomes blocked, usually due to cancer, an enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow node) may occur.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?
Your Answer: Triquetrum
Correct Answer: Stapes
Explanation:The stapes bone is the correct answer.
The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with increasing fatigue and difficulty exercising. After undergoing various tests, including echocardiography and right heart catheterization, it is determined that he has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) with a mean pulmonary artery pressure of 35 mmhg and a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 8mmhg. One of the medications prescribed for him is ambrisentan. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibitor (PDE inhibitor)
Correct Answer: Endothelin-1 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Ambrisentan is an antagonist of endothelin-1 receptors, which are involved in vasoconstriction. In pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), the expression of endothelin-1 is increased, leading to constriction of blood vessels. Ambrisentan selectively targets ETA receptors found in vascular smooth muscle, reducing morbidity and mortality in PAH patients. Common side effects include peripheral edema, sinusitis, flushing, and nasal congestion. Prostacyclins like PGI2 can also be used to manage PPH by dilating blood vessels and inhibiting platelet aggregation. PGE2, an inflammatory mediator, is not used in PAH treatment. PDE inhibitors like sildenafil increase cGMP levels in pulmonary vessels, relaxing vascular smooth muscle and reducing pulmonary artery pressure.
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.
Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 57
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of headache, nausea, and vomiting for the past 6 hours. His wife reports that he had a fall one week ago, but did not lose consciousness.
Upon examination, the patient is oriented to person, but not to place and time. His vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ on the right and 2+ on the left, and there is mild weakness of his left-sided muscles. Babinski's sign is present on the right. A non-contrast CT scan of the head reveals a hyperdense crescent across the left hemisphere.
What is the likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Rupture of bridging veins
Explanation:Subdural hemorrhage occurs when damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses bleed. In this patient’s CT scan, a hyperdense crescent-shaped collection is visible on the left hemisphere, indicating subdural hemorrhage. Given the patient’s age and symptoms, this diagnosis is likely.
Ischemic stroke can result from blockage of the anterior or middle cerebral artery. The former typically presents with contralateral motor weakness, while the latter presents with contralateral motor weakness, sensory loss, and hemianopia. If the dominant hemisphere is affected, the patient may also experience aphasia, while hemineglect may occur if the non-dominant hemisphere is affected. Early CT scans may appear normal, but later scans may show hypodense areas in the contralateral parietal and temporal lobes.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by an aneurysm rupture and presents acutely with a severe headache, photophobia, and meningism. The CT scan would show hyperdense material in the subarachnoid space.
Epidural hematoma results from the rupture of the middle meningeal artery and appears as a biconvex hyperdense collection between the brain and skull.
Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage
Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.
Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.
Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.
Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A father is extremely worried that his 2-day-old baby appears blue following a forceps delivery. What causes the ductus arteriosus to close during birth?
Your Answer: Decreased oxygen tension
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus links the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. This enables blood from the right ventricle to bypass the non-functioning lungs and enter the systemic circulation.
After birth, the blood’s oxygen tension increases, and the level of prostaglandins decreases. These changes cause the patent ductus arteriosus to close. Additionally, an increase in left atrial pressure leads to the closure of the foramen ovale, which connects the left and right atria. Nitric oxide plays a role in vasodilation, particularly during pregnancy, but it is not directly responsible for duct closure. VEGF promotes angiogenesis in hypoxic conditions, but it is largely irrelevant in this context.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of generalised puffiness. She has been feeling lethargic and noticed swelling in her hands, feet, and face over the past few weeks. Additionally, she has been experiencing shortness of breath on exertion and cannot lie flat, frequently waking up at night gasping for air. She also reports tingling and loss of sensation in both feet, which has now extended to her knees. She has no regular medications and is otherwise healthy.
Upon examination, the patient has decreased sensation over the distal lower limbs and hepatomegaly. Urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and urinalysis reveals hyperalbuminuria. Serology shows hypoalbuminaemia and hyperlipidaemia. An outpatient echocardiogram reveals both systolic and diagnostic heart failure, with a restrictive filling pattern. The Mantoux skin test was negative.
What is the probable mechanism behind this patient's condition?Your Answer: Mycobacterium
Correct Answer: Deposition of light chain fragments
Explanation:The deposition of light chain fragments in various tissues is the most common cause of amyloidosis (AL), which can present with symptoms such as nephrotic syndrome, heart failure, and peripheral neuropathy.
Symptoms in the upper respiratory tract and kidneys are typically seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which is caused by anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-induced inflammation. Therefore, this answer is not applicable.
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium, but the absence of pulmonary features and negative Mantoux skin test make it unlikely in this case. Therefore, this answer is not applicable.
Amyloidosis is a condition that can occur in different forms. The most common type is AL amyloidosis, which is caused by the accumulation of immunoglobulin light chain fragments. This can be due to underlying conditions such as myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, or MGUS. Symptoms of AL amyloidosis can include nephrotic syndrome, cardiac and neurological issues, macroglossia, and periorbital eccymoses.
Another type of amyloidosis is AA amyloid, which is caused by the buildup of serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant. This form of amyloidosis is often seen in patients with chronic infections or inflammation, such as TB, bronchiectasis, or rheumatoid arthritis. The most common symptom of AA amyloidosis is renal involvement.
Beta-2 microglobulin amyloidosis is another form of the condition, which is caused by the accumulation of beta-2 microglobulin, a protein found in the major histocompatibility complex. This type of amyloidosis is often seen in patients who are on renal dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman visits the clinic to discuss her bone densitometry results. She has a history of hypertension and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her BMI is 22.1 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable. Serum calcium, phosphorus concentrations, and serum alkaline phosphatase activity are within the reference ranges. The bone densitometry shows low bone density consistent with osteoporosis. What medication was most likely prescribed to inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, and resulted in no further loss of bone mineral density on repeat bone densitometry 1 year later?
Your Answer: Denosumab
Correct Answer: Risedronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate and risedronate, are used to treat osteoporosis by preventing bone resorption through the inhibition of osteoclasts. These drugs are taken up by the osteoclasts, preventing them from adhering to the bone surface and continuing the resorption process.
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that works by binding to the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L), which blocks the interaction between RANK-L and RANK, ultimately reducing bone resorption.
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that has estrogen-like effects on bone, leading to decreased bone resorption and improved bone density.
Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits the action of sclerostin, a regulatory factor in bone metabolism, ultimately leading to increased bone formation.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female comes to her doctor with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She reports her urine as having a musky and cloudy appearance. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no other health concerns. Upon testing her urine with a dipstick, high levels of leukocytes and nitrites are detected.
What treatment should be avoided in this patient?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss in his right ear. After conducting a Webber's and Rinne's test, the following results were obtained:
- Webber's test: lateralizes to the left ear
- Rinne's test (left ear): Air > Bone
- Rinne's test (right ear): Air > Bone
What is the probable cause of his hearing loss?Your Answer: Otitis media with effusion
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear is indicative of an acoustic neuroma, which is the only option listed as a cause for this type of hearing loss. Other options such as otitis media with effusion and otitis externa cause conductive hearing loss, while ossicular fracture is a rare cause of conductive hearing loss. Understanding the Weber and Rinne tests is important in interpreting these results accurately.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia?
Your Answer: Absence of neuroma formation
Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury
Explanation:Neuropraxia typically results in full recovery within 6-8 weeks after nerve injury, and Wallerian degeneration is not a common occurrence. Additionally, autonomic function is typically maintained.
Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.
Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old regular gym attendee has been using growth hormone injections to enhance his muscle mass. What potential risks is he now more susceptible to?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus type II
Explanation:Excessive growth hormone can elevate the likelihood of developing type II diabetes mellitus. This is due to the hormone’s ability to release glucose from fat reserves, which raises its concentration in the bloodstream. As a result, the pancreas must produce more insulin to counteract the heightened glucose levels.
Additional indications of surplus growth hormone may involve thickened skin, enlarged extremities, a protruding jaw, carpal tunnel syndrome, fatigue, muscle frailty, and high blood pressure.
Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions
Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.
GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.
In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 65
Incorrect
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You are a student observing a routine cholecystectomy procedure as part of your clinical placement in a general surgical unit. The patient is a 49-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma and current cholecystitis.
During the induction of anaesthesia, the patient's vital signs rapidly deteriorate. Her blood pressure drops to 80/60mmHg, heart rate increases to 148bpm, and she requires increased ventilatory pressure. The anaesthetist suspects a drug reaction.
What is the primary biochemical agent responsible for this drug reaction, given the most likely mechanism?Your Answer: Interleukin 12
Correct Answer: Histamine
Explanation:The cause of anaphylactic shock is the recognition of an antigen by IgE molecules on mast cells, leading to rapid degranulation and the release of histamine and other inflammatory cytokines. In this case, the patient’s symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, and airway collapse following administration of anaesthetic medications, along with their history of asthma, suggest anaphylaxis as the cause.
The correct answer to the question of which mediator is primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions is histamine. Histamine is a potent vasodilator and can increase vascular permeability, leading to haemodynamic instability when released in excess.
Bradykinin is not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in angioedema associated with ACE-inhibitor toxicity.
Complement is not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in type-2 hypersensitivity reactions such as in the context of penicillin allergy.
Immune complexes are not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in type-3 hypersensitivity reactions such as glomerulonephritis, various forms of arthritis, and anti-venom vasculitis.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening confusion and a two-week history of generalised headache. He has a significant medical history of HIV, diagnosed 12 years ago, and his sister reports that he has not been taking his medication for the past week. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38ºC, and nuchal rigidity is noted. A lumbar puncture reveals elevated opening pressure and encapsulated yeast forms in the cerebrospinal fluid. He is prescribed flucytosine along with another medication. What is the most likely side effect of the medication prescribed to him?
Your Answer: Red Man Syndrome
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from cryptococcus meningitis, which is common in individuals with HIV. The recommended treatment for this condition is a combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine. However, it is important to note that amphotericin B can cause hypokalaemia as a side effect. This occurs due to increased membrane permeability, which leads to potassium leakage from the cytoplasm into the tubular lumen in the kidneys. This can result in potassium wasting and exacerbate the patient’s condition. While vancomycin is known to cause Red Man syndrome, it is not associated with amphotericin B. Amphotericin B can also cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can lead to polyuria and weight loss. However, it is not known to cause bullous pemphigoid.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 67
Correct
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During a tricuspid valve repair, the right atrium is opened after establishing cardiopulmonary bypass. Which of the following structures is not located within the right atrium?
Your Answer: Trabeculae carnae
Explanation:The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a car accident. During your initial assessment, you perform a pupil examination by shining a light in each eye. What two nerves are being tested during this examination?
Your Answer: Optic nerve and ophthalmic nerve
Correct Answer: Optic nerve and oculomotor nerve
Explanation:The pupillary light reflex involves the optic nerve and oculomotor nerve. The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina when a light is shone in the pupil. The oculomotor nerve then transmits efferent information to the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing it to constrict.
The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve, responsible for visual information transmission.
The third cranial nerve is the oculomotor nerve, which provides motor innervation to four extra-orbital muscles and parasympathetic fibers to the constrictor pupillae and ciliaris.
The fourth cranial nerve is the trochlear nerve, which supplies the superior oblique extra-orbital muscle.
The ophthalmic nerve is the first division of the trigeminal nerve, the fifth cranial nerve, and carries sensation from the orbit, upper eyelid, and forehead.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.
Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain
Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.
Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.
Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.
If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.
Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A healthy 35-year-old man gives a blood donation of 500ml. What is the most probable process that will take place?
Your Answer: Fall in mean arterial pressure
Correct Answer: Activation of the renin angiotensin system
Explanation:Losing 500ml of fluid (for a 70 Kg male) is typically enough to trigger the renin angiotensin system, but it is unlikely to cause any other bodily disruptions.
Understanding Bleeding and its Effects on the Body
Bleeding, even if it is of a small volume, triggers a response in the body that causes generalised splanchnic vasoconstriction. This response is mediated by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. The process of vasoconstriction is usually enough to maintain renal perfusion and cardiac output if the volume of blood lost is small. However, if greater volumes of blood are lost, the renin angiotensin system is activated, resulting in haemorrhagic shock.
The body’s physiological measures can restore circulating volume if the source of bleeding ceases. Ongoing bleeding, on the other hand, will result in haemorrhagic shock. Blood loss is typically quantified by the degree of shock produced, which is determined by parameters such as blood loss volume, pulse rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, urine output, and symptoms. Understanding the effects of bleeding on the body is crucial in managing and treating patients who experience blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient comes in with symptoms of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. The doctor orders a urea & electrolyte test and a short Synacthen test which comes back abnormal and diagnoses the patient with Addison's disease.
What electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be observed in this patient?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia & hyponatraemia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia & hyponatraemia
Explanation:In Addison’s disease, there is a deficiency in the production of both aldosterone and cortisol.
Aldosterone plays a crucial role in the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium.
Therefore, the absence of aldosterone leads to an imbalance in the levels of sodium and potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels).
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old rugby player complains of polyuria and polydipsia. He reports being hospitalized 5 months ago due to a head injury sustained while playing rugby. Central diabetes insipidus is confirmed through biochemistry and a water-deprivation test. A pituitary MRI reveals a thickened pituitary stalk, supporting the diagnosis. What is the appropriate medication for this patient?
Your Answer: Goserelin
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Desmopressin is an effective treatment for central diabetes insipidus, which is a rare condition caused by damage or dysfunction of the posterior pituitary gland resulting in a lack of ADH production. Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism, while goserelin is used to treat prostate cancer. Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is used to manage hypertension and heart failure.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of chest pain that has been present for a week. The pain worsens when he breathes in and is relieved when he sits forward. He also has a non-productive cough. He recently had a viral infection. An ECG was performed and showed global saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis
Explanation:Chest pain that is relieved by sitting or leaning forward is often a symptom of acute pericarditis. This condition is commonly caused by a viral infection and may also present with flu-like symptoms, non-productive cough, and dyspnea. ECG changes may show a saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Cardiac tamponade, on the other hand, is characterized by Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds. Dyspnea and tachycardia may also be present.
A myocardial infarction is unlikely if the chest pain has been present for a week, as it typically presents more acutely and with constant chest pain regardless of body positioning. ECG changes would also occur in specific territories rather than globally.
A pneumothorax presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, and sweating. No ECG changes would be observed.
A pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute onset tachypnea, fever, tachycardia, and crackles. Signs of deep vein thrombosis may also be present.
Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient, who has recently returned from India, presents to the clinic with fever, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and two episodes of profuse, bloody stools. Physical examination indicates tenderness in the right upper quadrant but no guarding or rigidity. The vital signs show a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, a temperature of 37.2ºC (98.96ºF), and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min. Ultrasound abdomen reveals a hypoechoic mass in the posterior liver. CT scan of the abdomen detects a low-density mass with peripheral enhancing rim consistent with an abscess on the posterior part of the right lobe of the liver.
What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:Entamoeba histolytica is the cause of amoebiasis, a disease that affects a significant portion of the population and spreads through the faecal-oral route. While some patients may not show any symptoms, others may experience mild or severe symptoms such as fever, abdominal pain, profuse bloody diarrhoea, and liver or colonic abscess. Amoebic liver abscess typically appears as a single mass in the right lobe, sometimes multiple, with contents resembling ‘anchovy sauce’.
Bacillus cereus is an incorrect answer as it causes food poisoning through contaminated foods like rice, potatoes, and cheese, leading to watery diarrhoea.
Campylobacter jejuni can cause bloody diarrhoea, but it is usually preceded by prodromal symptoms like fever, rigours, dizziness, and body aches. It spreads through raw milk, undercooked poultry, and contaminated water.
Clostridium difficile is also incorrect as it causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, which occurs after antibiotic treatment alters the microbial flora of the large intestine, making it susceptible to infection by Clostridium difficile.
Understanding Amoebiasis
Amoebiasis is a disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a type of protozoan that spreads through the faecal-oral route. It is a prevalent disease, with an estimated 10% of the world’s population being chronically infected. The infection can be asymptomatic, cause mild diarrhoea, or severe amoebic dysentery. Amoebiasis can also lead to liver and colonic abscesses.
Amoebic dysentery is a severe form of the disease that causes profuse, bloody diarrhoea. The incubation period for this type of amoebiasis can be long, and stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15 minutes or kept warm. Treatment for amoebic dysentery is with metronidazole.
Amoebic liver abscess is another type of amoebiasis that usually appears as a single mass in the right lobe, although it may be multiple. The contents of the abscess are often described as ‘anchovy sauce,’ and the patient may experience fever and RUQ pain. Serology is positive in more than 90% of cases.
Treatment for invasive amoebiasis should be followed by a luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage, which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole, the drugs used against the invasive stage. Understanding the different types of amoebiasis and their symptoms is crucial in diagnosing and treating this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by an ambulance after she was found collapsed on the street by a bystander. Within a few minutes of arrival she developed severe abdominal pain and became severely agitated.
Her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, heart rate 110 beats per minute, temperature 39.3ºC. Her prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are increased, and her fibrinogen levels are lower than normal. Her D-dimer is positive.
Hb 96 g/l
Platelets 85 * 109/l
WBC 14 * 109/l
Blood smears are sent to the laboratory.
What is most likely to be seen in the blood smears?Your Answer: Dacrocytes
Correct Answer: Schistocytes
Explanation:DIC, also known as consumptive coagulopathy, is a condition where the coagulation cascade is overactivated, leading to unchecked bleeding. This is due to the depletion of clotting mechanisms. Normally, clot formation and breakdown are balanced, with thrombin playing a key role in both processes. In DIC, patients may have prolonged coagulation times, thrombocytopenia, high levels of fibrin degradation products, elevated D-dimer levels, and microangiopathic pathology on peripheral smears. The excess fibrin strands in the intravascular circulation cause mechanical damage to red blood cells, resulting in schistocyte formation, thrombocytopenia, and consumption of clotting factors. Bite cells are abnormally shaped red blood cells with semicircular portions removed from the cell margin, seen in G6PD deficiency. Dacrocytes are teardrop-shaped cells seen in myelofibrosis and marrow disorders, while elliptocytes are red cells varying in shape from elongated to oval, seen in various disorders.
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.
Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.
In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the femoral artery. He has a history of intravenous drug use.
Due to poor vein quality, peripheral cannulation under ultrasound guidance is not feasible. Intraosseous access has been established, but additional access is required to administer large volume transfusions.
To obtain access to a vessel that runs anterior to the medial malleolus, the consultant has decided to perform a venous cutdown.
Which vessel will be accessed through this procedure?Your Answer: Anterior tibial vein
Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:The correct answer is the long saphenous vein, which passes in front of the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown procedures. This vein is the largest vessel in the superficial venous system and is formed from the dorsal venous arch of the foot. During a venous cutdown, the skin is opened up to expose the vessel, allowing for cannulation under direct vision.
The anterior tibial vein, fibular vein, and posterior tibial vein are all incorrect answers. The anterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system and arises from the dorsal venous arch, while the fibular vein forms from the plantar veins of the foot and drains into the posterior tibial vein. The posterior tibial vein also arises from the plantar veins of the foot but ascends posterior to the medial malleolus.
The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins
The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.
On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.
Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 77
Correct
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A 28-year-old athlete visits her GP with complaints of amenorrhea. She hasn't had her period for the past 6 months, and her pregnancy test came back negative. She had regular periods before and started menstruating at the age of 12. The patient has been undergoing rigorous training for marathons for the last 8 months. She doesn't have any fever or diarrhea, and there are no signs of hirsutism on examination.
The blood test results show:
- TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.4 – 4)
- Free T4: 15 pmol/L (normal range: 9 – 25)
- Free T3: 5.2 nmol/L (normal range: 3.5 – 7.8)
- LH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-12)
- FSH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-9)
What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhea?Your Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Explanation:The patient is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is indicative of hypothalamic amenorrhoea due to low-level gonadotrophins. This could be caused by the patient’s intensive training for marathons, as well as other risk factors such as stress and anorexia nervosa. Hyperthyroidism is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms or abnormal thyroid function test results. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) can be ruled out as the patient does not have hirsutism, a high BMI, or elevated LH and FSH levels. Pregnancy is also not a possibility as the patient’s test was negative and she does not exhibit any signs of pregnancy.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.
To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.
In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to the clinic with an unexplained fever and a noticeable mass in his abdomen. During the physical examination, the doctor observes painless lymphadenopathy. A biopsy of the mass is taken and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The results reveal a 'starry sky' pattern under microscopy, which is characteristic of a high-grade non-hodgkin lymphoma.
What is the gene implicated in this disease process?Your Answer: n-MYC
Correct Answer: c-MYC
Explanation:The patient exhibits symptoms consistent with Burkitt’s lymphoma, including a fever, a palpable abdominal mass, and painless lymphadenopathy. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis, revealing the characteristic ‘starry-sky’ pattern associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma. This type of cancer is linked to the c-MYC gene. In contrast, chronic myeloid leukemia is associated with the ABL gene, neuroblastoma with n-MYC, and multiple endocrine neoplasia with RET.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion after blood tests are taken. Her admission blood results indicate dehydration and elevated potassium levels, with a subsequent increase to 5.9. Which intravenous therapy is likely causing her hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Water
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s
Explanation:Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors
Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For the first 24 hours, NICE recommends using sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium. However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid loss will require more fluid, while a patient with heart failure should receive less fluid to avoid pulmonary edema.
It is important to consider the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and the most commonly used fluids when prescribing intravenous fluids. 0.9% saline can lead to hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis if large volumes are used. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia. By following these guidelines and considering individual patient needs, junior doctors can ensure safe and effective fluid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 80
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with cellulitis surrounding her leg ulcer. A skin swab is taken and she is started on oral flucloxacillin. The swab results reveal Group A streptococcus. What modifications should be made to her antibiotic treatment?
Your Answer: Add penicillin
Explanation:When it comes to group A streptococcal infections, penicillin is the preferred antibiotic. If a patient with cellulitis is confirmed to have a streptococcal infection, the BNF recommends discontinuing flucloxacillin because of its high sensitivity. However, it’s important to consider the inconsistent absorption of phenoxymethylpenicillin.
Streptococci are spherical bacteria that are gram-positive. They can be classified into two types based on their hemolytic properties: alpha and beta. Alpha haemolytic streptococci, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus viridans, cause partial hemolysis. Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media. Beta haemolytic streptococci, on the other hand, cause complete hemolysis and can be further divided into groups A-H. Only groups A, B, and D are significant in humans. Group A streptococci, particularly Streptococcus pyogenes, are responsible for various infections such as erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, and pharyngitis/tonsillitis. They can also cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis due to immunological reactions. Scarlet fever can also be caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by group A streptococci. Group B streptococci, specifically Streptococcus agalactiae, can lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia. Enterococcus belongs to group D streptococci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 81
Incorrect
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An ENT surgeon is performing a radical neck dissection. She wishes to fully expose the external carotid artery. To do so she inserts a self retaining retractor close to its origin. Which one of the following structures lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?
Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:At its origin from the common carotid, the internal carotid artery is located at the posterolateral position in relation to the external carotid artery. Its anterior surface gives rise to the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an unidentified substance in excess.
Subsequent blood tests indicate that the removal of the drug from the system is proportionate to the declining levels of the drug in the bloodstream.
What is the term used to describe this pharmacokinetic occurrence?Your Answer: Zero-order kinetics
Correct Answer: First-order kinetics
Explanation:When drugs are eliminated through first-order kinetics, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time increases as the concentration of the drug in the body increases.
First-order kinetics is a proportional relationship between drug concentration and elimination rate, while non-linear elimination kinetics may involve zero-order kinetics at low concentrations and first-order kinetics at high concentrations.
The two-compartment model is useful for understanding the absorption phases of drugs, which can vary depending on factors such as liver function and route of administration.
Drugs that are eliminated through zero-order kinetics are eliminated at a constant rate, regardless of the drug concentration in the body.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A new treatment for arthritis in elderly patients is being studied. The research focuses on the reduction of joint pain after 6 months. The given data is as follows:
Number of patients Number who experienced joint pain reduction within 6 months
New treatment 150 75
Placebo 300 150
What is the percentage of relative risk reduction?Your Answer: 0.8
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 84
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She denies the presence of blood. There is no history of recent travel. The diarrhoea is stopping her from going to work, and so she has been forced to take unpaid leave. She wants to return to work as she is the sole breadwinner for the family.
On examination, she is apyrexial but looks clinically dehydrated.
After ruling out infection and inflammatory bowel disease, you prescribe a short course of loperamide to help slow down her bowel movements.
What is the mechanism of action of the prescribed anti-diarrhoeal medication?Your Answer: Agonist of μ-opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine
Explanation:The myenteric plexus of the large intestine’s μ-opioid receptors are targeted by loperamide.
Antidiarrhoeal Agents: Opioid Agonists
Antidiarrhoeal agents are medications used to treat diarrhoea. Opioid agonists are a type of antidiarrhoeal agent that work by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which reduces the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. Two common opioid agonists used for this purpose are loperamide and diphenoxylate.
Loperamide is available over-the-counter and is often used to treat acute diarrhoea. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the intestines, which reduces the contractions of the muscles in the intestinal wall. This slows down the movement of food and waste through the intestines, allowing more time for water to be absorbed and resulting in firmer stools.
Diphenoxylate is a prescription medication that is often used to treat chronic diarrhoea. It works in a similar way to loperamide, but is often combined with atropine to discourage abuse and overdose.
Overall, opioid agonists are effective at treating diarrhoea, but should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. They can cause side effects such as constipation, dizziness, and nausea, and may interact with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. Upon testing a urine sample, the doctor discovers the growth of E. Coli that is resistant to ampicillin. What is the underlying mechanism of resistance?
Your Answer: Carbapenemase production
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:The resistance mechanism of penicillins involves the production of beta-lactamase, an enzyme that breaks down the antibiotic’s beta-lactam ring. This is a common cause of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, and is observed in many E. Coli strains.
Carbapenemases are a type of beta-lactamase, and some E. Coli strains produce them. However, it is not specified in the question whether the E. Coli in the patient’s urine is resistant to carbapenems.
Resistance against fluoroquinolone and tetracycline antibiotics often occurs due to mutations in the gene encoding the targeted site. Tetracycline resistance can also result from the production of efflux pumps. Protective biofilm production is common in P. aeruginosa and S. pneumoniae infections.
Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. However, over time, bacteria have developed mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics. These mechanisms vary depending on the type of antibiotic being used.
For example, penicillins are often rendered ineffective by bacterial penicillinase, an enzyme that cleaves the β-lactam ring in the antibiotic. Cephalosporins, another type of antibiotic, can become ineffective due to changes in the penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs) that they target. Macrolides, on the other hand, can be resisted by bacteria that have undergone post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
Fluoroquinolones can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations to DNA gyrase or efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of the antibiotic within the cell. Tetracyclines can be resisted by bacteria that have increased efflux through plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection. Aminoglycosides can be resisted by bacteria that have plasmid-encoded genes for acetyltransferases, adenyltransferases, and phosphotransferases.
Sulfonamides can be resisted by bacteria that increase the synthesis of PABA or have mutations in the gene encoding dihydropteroate synthetase. Vancomycin can be resisted by bacteria that have altered the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits to which the antibiotic binds. Rifampicin can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations altering residues of the rifampicin binding site on RNA polymerase. Finally, isoniazid and pyrazinamide can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations in the katG and pncA genes, respectively, which reduce the ability of the catalase-peroxidase to activate the pro-drug.
In summary, bacteria have developed various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, making it increasingly difficult to treat bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of sensation in the 1st webspace of his left hand after a night of heavy drinking at a party. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient is unable to extend his left wrist and also reports a loss of sensation in the dorsal aspect of the 1st webspace. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies the skin on the dorsal aspect of the hand, while the axillary nerve innervates teres minor and deltoid muscle and provides sensory innervation to the badge area. The median nerve is the main nerve of the anterior compartment of the forearm, and the ulnar nerve innervates muscles in the forearm and intrinsic muscles of the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies muscles in the upper arm and terminates as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female is experiencing high levels of anxiety when she is in social situations. She often turns to alcohol to calm her nerves, which has resulted in a few embarrassing incidents where she has had to leave early due to being too intoxicated. As a result, she now avoids social events altogether and worries that others will view her as socially inept or strange. What is the most accurate way to describe her anxiety and fears?
Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Social Phobia
Social phobia is a condition where individuals experience intense fear and avoidance of social situations. They have a constant fear of being judged or scrutinized by others due to their behavior or physical appearance. To cope with their anxiety, some individuals may resort to excessive drinking, which can lead to further problems such as aggression and disinhibition.
Treatment for social phobia typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy. Medications such as antidepressants and anti-anxiety drugs can help alleviate symptoms, while psychotherapy can help individuals learn coping mechanisms and develop social skills. With proper treatment, individuals with social phobia can learn to manage their anxiety and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity of a research?
Your Answer: Instrument obtrusiveness
Correct Answer: Representativeness of the sample
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient comes to you with worries about his increasing breast size, despite not experiencing any weight gain in other areas. Upon further inquiry, he also mentions a painless lump in his right testicle. He reveals that his father had testicular cancer in the past.
What is the probable reason for gynaecomastia in this scenario?Your Answer: Decrease in androgen production
Correct Answer: Increased oestrogen: androgen ratio
Explanation:Gynaecomastia is a common symptom of testicular cancer and is caused by an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. This occurs because germ-cell tumours produce hCG, which causes Leydig cells to produce more oestradiol in relation to testosterone. Leydig cell tumours also directly secrete more oestradiol and convert additional androgen precursors to oestrogens. This results in a relative reduction in androgen concentration and an increased conversion of androgens to oestrogens.
Obesity can also cause gynaecomastia due to increased levels of aromatase, the enzyme responsible for the conversion of androgens to oestrogens. However, this is not the most likely cause in this case as the patient has not gained weight elsewhere and presents with symptoms of testicular cancer.
Undescended testis is a significant risk factor for testicular cancer, but it is not a direct cause of gynaecomastia. Similarly, a prolactinoma can cause breast enlargement in males, but it is not commonly associated with testicular cancer or gynaecomastia.
In summary, gynaecomastia in testicular cancer is caused by an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio, which can result from germ-cell or Leydig cell tumours. Other potential causes, such as obesity, undescended testis, or prolactinoma, are less likely in this clinical scenario.
Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.
Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it has what?
Your Answer: Good face validity
Correct Answer: Good internal validity
Explanation:Claims about cause and effect require good internal validity.
Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain and diarrhoea that started 3 hours ago. Upon examination, his pulse is 105 bpm, blood pressure is 98/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.5 ºC. The abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding. The X-ray shows thumbprinting, leading you to suspect that he may have ischaemic colitis. Which specific area is the most probable site of involvement?
Your Answer: Recto-sigmoid junction
Correct Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Ischemic colitis is a condition where blood flow to a part of the large intestine is temporarily reduced, often due to a blockage or hypo-perfusion. While any part of the colon can be affected, it most commonly affects the left side. The hepatic flexure, located on the right side of the colon, is less likely to be involved as it has a good blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The ileocecal junction is also less likely to be affected as it has a good blood supply from the ileocolic artery, a branch of the SMA. The splenic flexure, located between the left colon and the transverse colon, is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis as it is a watershed area supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The sigmoid colon, supplied by the sigmoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, is less likely to be affected. The recto-sigmoid junction is also a watershed area and vulnerable to ischaemic colitis, but it is less common than ischaemia at the splenic flexure.
Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.
The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Anal fissure
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension
A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.
An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.
A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes following an oral glucose tolerance test. What are the possible complications associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Neonatal hyperglycaemia
Correct Answer: Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, polyhydramnios
Explanation:During pregnancy, the development of carbohydrate intolerance is referred to as gestational diabetes mellitus. To diagnose this condition, an OGTT is typically performed at 28 weeks, although it may be done earlier for those at higher risk (such as those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, with a BMI over 30, a history of stillbirth, or family members with diabetes). Diabetes during pregnancy can increase the likelihood of various complications, including macrosomia, polyhydramnios, shoulder dystocia, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Ebstein’s anomaly of the heart can occur as a result of lithium use during pregnancy, while prolonged rupture of membranes during pregnancy can lead to neonatal infection.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with excessive epistaxis. Despite applying pressure on the anterior nares for the past four hours, the bleeding has not stopped. Nasal packing has also failed to control the bleeding. The on-call ENT specialist administers topical tranexamic acid to a visibly bleeding artery, which results in a reduction in bleeding.
What is the mode of action of tranexamic acid?Your Answer: Inhibits anticlotting factors protein C and protein S
Correct Answer: Prevents plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots
Explanation:Tranexamic acid prevents major haemorrhage by binding to plasminogen and preventing plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots. Its mechanism of action is not related to increasing the availability of vitamin K or inhibiting anticlotting factors protein C and S. Similarly, reducing the availability of vitamin K would not be the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid. While stimulating anticlotting factors protein C and S would maintain clots, it is not the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid.
Understanding Tranexamic Acid
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine that acts as an antifibrinolytic. Its primary function is to bind to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin, preventing plasmin from degrading fibrin. This medication is commonly prescribed to treat menorrhagia.
In addition to its use in treating menorrhagia, tranexamic acid has been investigated for its role in trauma. The CRASH 2 trial found that administering tranexamic acid within the first 3 hours of bleeding trauma can be beneficial. In cases of major haemorrhage, tranexamic acid is given as an IV bolus followed by an infusion.
Ongoing research is also exploring the potential of tranexamic acid in treating traumatic brain injury. Overall, tranexamic acid is a medication with important applications in managing bleeding disorders and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who is currently recovering in hospital following a stroke. Her MRI scan report says there is evidence of ischaemic damage to the superior optic radiation within the right temporal lobe.
What type of visual impairment is Samantha likely experiencing?Your Answer: Left superior homonymous quadrantanopia
Correct Answer: Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia
Explanation:Lesions in the temporal lobe inferior optic radiations are responsible for superior homonymous quadrantanopias.
If the left temporal lobe is damaged, the resulting visual field defect would be in the right side. Specific damage to the inferior optic radiation would cause a superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
Damage to the right inferior optic radiation would lead to a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
A right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia would occur if the left superior optic radiation is damaged.
If the left occipital lobe is damaged, a right homonymous hemianopia would result.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred to the gastroenterologist for ongoing nausea and epigastric pain. He recently returned from a trip to southeast Asia. Blood tests show he has iron deficiency anemia, and faecal microscopy reveals hookworm eggs. What type of immune cell is responsible for protecting against helminths?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Correct Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The defence against parasites, including helminths and protozoa, is carried out by eosinophils, which are innate cells. The role of basophils in the immune system is not well understood, but they are closely linked to mast cells. Neutrophils, on the other hand, are crucial phagocytic cells present in acute inflammation.
Innate Immune Response: Cells Involved
The innate immune response is the first line of defense against invading pathogens. It involves a variety of cells that work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders. The following cells are primarily involved in the innate immune response:
Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cell and are the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation. They contain granules that contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme, which help to break down and destroy pathogens.
Basophils and mast cells are similar in function and both release histamine during an allergic response. They also contain granules that contain histamine and heparin, and express IgE receptors on their cell surface.
Eosinophils defend against protozoan and helminthic infections, and have a bi-lobed nucleus.
Monocytes differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens. They also act as antigen-presenting cells and are a major source of IL-1.
Natural killer cells induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells, while dendritic cells act as antigen-presenting cells.
Overall, these cells work together to provide a rapid and effective response to invading pathogens, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians after confessing to taking three boxes of ibuprofen an hour ago.
What is the appropriate course of action for her treatment?Your Answer: N-acetylcysteine and protamine sulphate
Correct Answer: Activated charcoal and N-acetylcysteine
Explanation:If a paracetamol overdose occurs, activated charcoal should be administered within 1 hour for it to be effective. However, if the time has passed, N-acetylcysteine would be the preferred treatment. It is important to note that activated charcoal should not be used as the sole treatment as it does not address the paracetamol that has already been absorbed.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the nomogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE should be consulted for situations outside of the normal parameters. Activated charcoal may be given to patients who present within 1 hour to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line, there is a staggered overdose, or patients present 8-24 hours after ingestion of an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol. Acetylcysteine should also be continued if the paracetamol concentration or ALT remains elevated while seeking specialist advice. The infusion time for acetylcysteine has been increased to 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion and restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of recurring infections such as sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia. Upon examination, the patient's IgM levels are elevated, while IgA, IgG, and IgE levels are low. This indicates an immune disorder that affects the class switching of B cell antibodies, leading to an inability of immunoglobulins to differentiate from the IgM isotype.
What factors are crucial for this process to occur?Your Answer: Th1 cells
Correct Answer: Th2 cells
Explanation:Immunoglobulin class switching is a process where B cells change their production of immunoglobulin from one type to another. This process is facilitated by Th2 cells, which provide specific signals to activated B cells via their CD40 and cytokine receptors. Hypergammaglobulinaemia, an immune disorder affecting antibody production, may occur when there are abnormalities in B cell class switching due to insufficient signalling from T helper cells or an inability of B cells to receive these signals. Cytotoxic T cells do not play a role in antibody formation, while Th1 cells work alongside cytotoxic T cells and macrophages as part of the cellular immune system. Macrophages, on the other hand, function as antigen presenting cells in the adaptive immune response.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A participant in a research study exploring lysosomal storage disorders is inquiring about the molecule responsible for binding and trafficking. The study is examining the role of the golgi apparatus in protein trafficking to lysosomes, with the aim of modifying the bound molecules to treat the disorder.
Your Answer: Fructose-1,6-biphosphonate
Correct Answer: Mannose-6-phosphate
Explanation:The Golgi apparatus plays a crucial role in modifying and packaging molecules for secretion from cells, as well as adding mannose-6-phosphate to proteins that are intended for transport to lysosomes. Lysosomal storage disorders, which result from enzyme dysfunction within lysosomes, are being studied to understand how faulty enzymes can be transported to lysosomes using the mannose-6-phosphate pathway.
Fructose-1,6-biphosphonate is produced through the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate, which is the primary molecule that glucose is converted to upon entering a cell. Fructose-1-phosphate is also produced from fructose and stored in the liver, but it cannot be converted in cases of hereditary fructose intolerance.
Fructose-6-phosphate is involved in the glycolysis metabolic pathway and is produced from glucose-6-phosphate. It can also be converted to mannose-6-phosphate through isomerisation. Mannose-1-phosphate is produced from mannose-6-phosphate through the action of phosphomannomutase.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which infection has the longest incubation period among the following options?
Your Answer: Typhoid
Correct Answer: Chickenpox
Explanation:Understanding Incubation Periods of Diseases
Incubation periods refer to the time between exposure to a disease-causing agent and the onset of symptoms. Knowing the incubation period of a disease is important in diagnosing and managing it. Some diseases have short incubation periods of less than a week, such as meningococcus, diphtheria, influenzae, and scarlet fever. Others have an incubation period of 1-2 weeks, including malaria, dengue fever, typhoid, and measles. Diseases with an incubation period of 2-3 weeks include mumps, rubella, and chickenpox. On the other hand, infectious mononucleosis, cytomegalovirus, viral hepatitis, and HIV have longer incubation periods of more than 3 weeks.
Understanding the incubation period of a disease can help healthcare professionals identify the possible cause of a patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. It can also help in preventing the spread of the disease by identifying and isolating infected individuals. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the incubation periods of common diseases and to seek medical attention if symptoms develop within the expected time frame.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits the endocrinology clinic complaining of muscle cramps, headaches, and lethargy. During the clinic visit, his vital signs are heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 150/100 mmHg, temperature 36.5ºC, and saturations 99% on air. Recent blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
An adrenal mass is detected on his abdominal CT scan. Can you identify where the hormone responsible for his symptoms is produced?Your Answer: Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The correct answer is the zona glomerulosa. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperaldosteronism, which is likely caused by an adenoma in the zona glomerulosa, as indicated by the mass seen on CT scan (also known as Conn’s syndrome). The adenoma stimulates the production of aldosterone, leading to hypertension and hypokalemia.
The adrenal medulla produces catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline.
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located in the kidney and produces renin in response to decreased renal perfusion.
The zona fasciculata is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex and is responsible for producing glucocorticoids, such as cortisol.
The zona reticularis is the innermost layer of the adrenal cortex and produces androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 102
Incorrect
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In phase 0 of the atrial cardiomyocyte action potential, the cell is rapidly depolarised.
What ion influx causes this rapid depolarisation?Your Answer: Ca+
Correct Answer: Na+
Explanation:Rapid depolarisation is caused by a rapid influx of sodium. This is due to the opening of fast Na+ channels during phase 0 of the cardiomyocyte action potential. Calcium influx during phase 2 causes a plateau, while chloride is not involved in the ventricular cardiomyocyte action potential. Potassium efflux occurs during repolarisation.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A patient in their 50s presents with acute onset of slurred speech and weakness on the left side of their body. During examination, you observe weakness in their left arm and face. Despite the slurred speech, the patient is able to comprehend and respond to your questions. Which of the following sites is the most probable location of the lesion causing dysarthria?
Your Answer: Wernicke's area
Correct Answer: Corticobulbar tract
Explanation:The corticobulbar tract is responsible for motor innervation to the cranial nerves, including the hypoglossal nerve that controls the tongue. A lesion in this tract can cause dysarthria, which is the inability to articulate speech. Other cranial nerve signs, such as facial paralysis and difficulty swallowing, may also occur.
Wernicke’s area is involved in language comprehension and understanding, and lesions in this area can result in receptive dysphasia. Patients with receptive dysphasia may speak fluently but their sentences may not make sense.
The primary sensory cortex, located in the parietal lobe, receives sensory innervation. Lesions in this area can cause loss of sensation, proprioception, fine touch, and vibration sense on the contralateral side.
Broca’s area, found in the frontal lobe, is associated with expressive dysphasia. This type of dysphasia is characterized by difficulty producing language, resulting in labored and non-fluent speech.
The occipital lobe, responsible for visual processing, can be affected by lesions that cause homonymous hemianopia, agnosias, and cortical blindness.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a BMI of 31 kg/m² has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Despite attempting to control his blood sugar levels through diet and exercise, he has not been successful. As a result, he has been prescribed metformin. What is the primary way in which metformin works?
Your Answer: Reduce absorption of glucose
Correct Answer: Reduce hepatic gluconeogenesis
Explanation:Metformin is a biguanide that decreases the production of glucose by the liver and improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues, thereby reducing insulin resistance.
Type 2 diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, which leads to increased hepatic gluconeogenesis and elevated blood glucose levels. Metformin works by reducing the liver’s production of glucose and enhancing the body’s response to insulin in muscles and other tissues.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?
Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase
Correct Answer: Desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 106
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of her right arm. She denies any pain or previous shoulder issues and has not experienced any trauma. During examination, her passive range of motion is normal, but she is unable to begin abduction from a neutral position. However, if she uses her left arm to lift her right arm to approximately 15 degrees, she is then able to continue abduction without difficulty. Which muscle is responsible for initiating shoulder abduction?
Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for starting the process of lifting the arm away from the body, up to a point of about 15 degrees. After this point, the Deltoid muscle takes over as the primary muscle responsible for continuing the arm’s upward movement. When the arm is lifted beyond 90 degrees, the Trapezius muscle comes into play, elevating the shoulder and rotating the scapula. Finally, the Infraspinatus muscle is responsible for producing lateral rotation of the arm at the shoulder.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 107
Incorrect
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In a research facility, the replication of a heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is being investigated. An inhibitor was introduced during gel electrophoresis to target an enzyme involved in DNA replication on the lagging strand. The results showed that replication on the leading strand proceeded without interruption, while replication on the lagging strand was fragmented.
What enzyme inhibitor was utilized in this study?Your Answer: Primase
Correct Answer: Ligase
Explanation:Ligase is responsible for connecting Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to create a continuous strand during DNA replication. While the leading strand undergoes continuous replication, the lagging strand is replicated in fragments known as Okazaki fragments. DNA ligase is an enzyme that joins these fragments together to form a complete section of DNA on the lagging strand.
Helicase is a type of enzyme found in eukaryotes that unwinds double-stranded DNA during replication.
Primase is an RNA polymerase that creates RNA primers, which are necessary for DNA replication to begin.
RNase H is an enzyme that breaks down RNA primers during DNA replication.
DNA Replication in Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes
DNA replication is the process by which genetic information is copied and passed on to the next generation of cells. In prokaryotes, DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm, while in eukaryotes, it occurs in the nucleus. Additionally, prokaryotes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotes have multiple origins.
During DNA replication, the double helix is unzipped by DNA helicase, creating a replication fork. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent the DNA from reannealing. DNA polymerase III elongates the leading strand in a 5′-3′ direction, while DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA. DNA ligase seals up the fragments.
While the basic mechanisms of DNA replication are similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, there are some differences in the process. Understanding these differences can help researchers better understand the genetic processes of different organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A motorcyclist in his mid-twenties has been in a road traffic accident resulting in severe injuries to his right shoulder. Upon examination, his shoulder is adducted and medially rotated, while his elbow is fully extended and his forearm is pronated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve lesion
Correct Answer: C5, C6 root lesion
Explanation:The individual is experiencing Erb’s palsy due to a lesion in the C5 and C6 roots. This condition is often linked to birth injuries that occur when a baby experiences shoulder dystocia. Symptoms include the waiter’s tip position, inability to raise the shoulder (due to paralysis of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles), inability to externally rotate the shoulder (due to paralysis of the infraspinatus muscle), inability to flex the elbow (due to paralysis of the biceps, brachialis, and brachioradialis muscles), and inability to supinate the forearm (due to paralysis of the biceps muscle).
Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.
The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.
The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.
Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A patient in his 50s becomes dehydrated, resulting in increased water absorption in the collecting duct. If the concentration of his urine is measured, it would be around 1200mOsm/L. At which point in the nephron would a comparable osmolarity be observed?
Your Answer: Thin ascending Loop of Henle
Correct Answer: The tip of the Loop of Henle
Explanation:The Loop of Henle creates the highest osmolarity in the nephron, while the proximal tubule absorbs most of the water. The tip of the papilla has the greatest osmolarity, which is also the maximum osmolarity that urine can attain after water absorption in the collecting ducts. The medulla of the kidney facilitates water reabsorption in the collecting ducts due to the osmotic gradient formed by the Loops of Henle.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, drowsiness, and nausea accompanied by vomiting. His daughter reports that he has been feeling fatigued and unwell with a persistent cough, and he has been smoking 20 cigarettes per day for 45 years. The patient is unable to provide a complete medical history due to his confusion, but he mentions that he sometimes coughs up blood and his urine has been darker than usual. On examination, he appears to be short of breath but euvolaemic. Blood tests reveal low serum sodium, high urinary sodium, low plasma osmolality, and high urinary osmolality. Renal and thyroid function tests are normal. A chest x-ray shows a lung carcinoma, leading you to suspect that this presentation may be caused by a syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.
What is the underlying mechanism responsible for the hyponatraemia?Your Answer: Inhibition of sodium-glucose symporters
Correct Answer: Insertion of aquaporin-2 channels
Explanation:The insertion of aquaporin-2 channels is promoted by antidiuretic hormone, which facilitates water reabsorption. However, in the case of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SiADH), which is caused by small cell lung cancer, the normal negative feedback loop fails, resulting in the continuous production of ADH even when serum osmolality returns to normal. This leads to euvolemic hyponatremia, where the body retains water but continues to lose sodium, resulting in concentrated urine. The underlying mechanism of this condition is the persistent increase in the number of aquaporin-2 channels, which promotes water reabsorption, rather than any effect on sodium transport mechanisms.
Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.
Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control and secondary prevention. The doctor advises him to make dietary changes to address excess fat in the blood that can lead to angina. During the explanation, the doctor asks which apolipoprotein macrophages recognize to uptake lipids under normal circumstances?
Your Answer: ApoC-II
Correct Answer: ApoB100
Explanation:Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with chest pain, palpitations, and dizziness. The patient has a past medical history of a transient ischemic episode and is taking warfarin to prevent further ischemic episodes. He also has a history of gout, low back pain, depression, and polymyalgia rheumatica.
Upon immediate ECG, the patient is found to have an irregularly irregular rhythm consistent with fast AF. You decide to perform electrical cardioversion and prescribe a course of amiodarone to prevent recurrence.
What drug interaction should you be cautious of in this patient?Your Answer: Amiodarone and allopurinol
Correct Answer: Warfarin and amiodarone
Explanation:The metabolism of warfarin is reduced by amiodarone, which can increase the risk of bleeding. However, there are no known interactions between amiodarone and naproxen, paracetamol, codeine, or allopurinol. It should be noted that the patient in question is not diabetic and therefore should not be taking metformin.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with advanced motor neuron disease is experiencing difficulty breathing, possibly due to weakened respiratory muscles.
Which skeletal muscle is not fully utilized during inspiration?Your Answer: Diaphragm
Correct Answer: Internal intercostals
Explanation:The Muscles Involved in Breathing
Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles. The primary muscles responsible for inspiration are the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm. These muscles work together to expand the chest cavity and create a negative pressure gradient, allowing air to flow into the lungs. In addition to these primary muscles, the sternocleidomastoid and the scalenes can also assist with inspiration.
During quiet expiration, the lungs simply recoil back to their resting position due to their elastic properties. However, during forced expiration, the internal intercostal muscles come into play. These muscles contract to decrease the size of the chest cavity and increase the pressure within the lungs, forcing air out.
the muscles involved in breathing is important for individuals with respiratory conditions, as well as athletes and performers who rely on proper breathing techniques for optimal performance. By strengthening and training these muscles, individuals can improve their breathing efficiency and overall respiratory health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient is feeling impatient as he waits in a crowded Emergency Room (ER) waiting area. He snaps at his daughter in annoyance.
What ego defence mechanism is he utilizing?Your Answer: Repression
Correct Answer: Displacement
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old boxer presents to a physiotherapist with a wrist drop in his right arm, 8 weeks after sustaining a midshaft humeral fracture resulting in radial nerve palsy. An MRI scan reveals marked atrophy in the muscle inserting at the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus. To address this, the physiotherapist prescribes reverse dumbbell wrist curls to strengthen the affected muscle. Which muscle has undergone significant atrophy in this patient, based on the MRI findings and treatment plan?
Your Answer: Extensor digitorum longus
Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis longus
Explanation:The extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is innervated by the radial nerve. However, in a patient with a radial nerve palsy due to a midshaft humeral fracture, this muscle may be the only forearm extensor directly supplied by the radial nerve. Therefore, it is the most likely correct answer when considering exercises to strengthen the affected muscle.
The extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, which originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, is also innervated by a branch of the radial nerve. However, its insertion point is different from that described in the MRI, making it an unlikely answer.
The extensor digitorum brevis muscle, which assists in extending the toes, is not relevant to the patient’s wrist condition.
The extensor digitorum longus muscle, which is involved in foot dorsiflexion and toe extension, is also not relevant to the patient’s wrist condition.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 116
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction receives bivalirudin, aspirin, and clopidogrel before undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the mode of action of bivalirudin?
Your Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor
Explanation:Bivalirudin inhibits thrombin directly in a reversible manner.
Warfarin prevents the conversion of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form by acting as an antagonist.
Heparins activate antithrombin II and also form inactive complexes with other clotting factors.
Aspirin inhibits COX.
Clopidogrel functions as a/an.
Bivalirudin: An Anticoagulant for Acute Coronary Syndrome
Bivalirudin is a medication that acts as a direct thrombin inhibitor, meaning it prevents the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used as an anticoagulant in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome, a condition where blood flow to the heart is blocked or reduced. Bivalirudin is a reversible inhibitor, meaning its effects can be reversed if necessary.
Acute coronary syndrome is a serious condition that can lead to heart attack or other complications if left untreated. Bivalirudin is an effective treatment option for preventing blood clots and reducing the risk of further complications. Its reversible nature also makes it a safer option for patients who may need to undergo surgery or other procedures while on anticoagulant therapy. Overall, bivalirudin is an important medication in the management of acute coronary syndrome and plays a crucial role in improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A man in his forties comes in with chest pain resembling a heart attack and is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. During his hospitalization, it is discovered that he has familial hypercholesterolemia but his triglyceride levels are normal. What is the underlying biochemical abnormality?
Your Answer: Defective apolipoprotein E
Correct Answer: Defective LDL receptors
Explanation:Lipid Metabolism and Transport in the Body
The breakdown of triglycerides in the small intestine is facilitated by pancreatic lipase. These triglycerides are then transported to the liver and other parts of the body through chylomicrons.
Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) is responsible for carrying triglycerides from the liver to peripheral tissues. When there is an overproduction of VLDL in the liver, it can lead to high levels of triglycerides in the body.
Pure hypercholesterolaemia is a condition that arises due to a defect in the process of cholesterol uptake into cells. This process relies on apolipoprotein B-100 binding to LDL receptors and facilitating endocytosis. When this process is disrupted, it can lead to high levels of cholesterol in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 118
Correct
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You are working in the emergency department and are asked to take bloods from a 65-year-old man who has presented with shortness of breath and a cough. During the process of taking the patient's blood, you sustain a needlestick injury. Following your hospital's guidelines, you thoroughly irrigate the wound and inform occupational health. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that they were diagnosed with HIV 6 years ago.
What is the primary factor that determines your risk of HIV transmission in this scenario?Your Answer: The viral load of the patient
Explanation:According to UK guidelines, it is no longer necessary to administer post-exposure prophylaxis after being exposed to a patient with an undetectable viral load in an occupational setting.
The risk of transmission is higher if the sharp object was used to access an artery or vein, if there is visible blood on the sharp, if the sharp is a hollow-bore blood-filled needle, or if the wound is deep.
Other factors listed do not impact the likelihood of HIV transmission.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 119
Correct
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A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?
Your Answer: Normal exam
Explanation:The FEV1/FVC ratio is a measure used in lung function tests to assess the health of the lungs. In normal individuals, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio falls below 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the volume of air that can be expelled in one second (FEV1). However, in restrictive lung disease, the FVC is also reduced, which can result in a normal or high FEV1/FVC ratio.
It is important to understand the FEV1/FVC ratio as it can help diagnose and monitor lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma. A low ratio indicates that the airways are obstructed, while a normal or high ratio suggests a restrictive lung disease. Lung function tests are often used to assess the severity of these conditions and to monitor the effectiveness of treatment. By the FEV1/FVC ratio, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and management for patients with lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old cyclist has fallen off his bicycle and landed on an outstretched arm. He complains of pain and swelling in his left shoulder. Upon examination, the shoulder is tender and swollen to the touch. The patient experiences pain when attempting active and passive movement of the shoulder joint. A radiograph is ordered, which reveals an undisplaced fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. What muscle, in addition to the deltoid muscle, is supplied by the axillary nerve, which is commonly injured in cases of surgical neck humerus fractures? Choose from the following options: subscapularis, teres major, supraspinatus, teres minor, or infraspinatus.
Your Answer: Teres major
Correct Answer: Teres minor
Explanation:The teres minor is the correct answer, as it is a rotator cuff muscle. The supraspinatus and infraspinatus are also rotator cuff muscles that are innervated by the suprascapular nerve, while the subscapularis is innervated by the superior and inferior subscapular nerves. The teres major, however, is not a rotator cuff muscle and is innervated by the inferior subscapular nerve. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can result in injury to the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery, making it important to test for axillary nerve function by checking sensation in the ‘regimental badge’ area of the arm and observing shoulder movements.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a hydrocele. During the procedure, the surgeons will be dividing the tunica vaginalis. What is the origin of this structure?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:The peritoneum gives rise to the tunica vaginalis, which produces the fluid that occupies the hydrocele space.
Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to a tertiary hospital with symptoms of fatigue, malaise, fever, and weight loss. He has a chronic cough with green sputum and reports emigrating from India to the UK 17 years ago. A Mantoux test is positive, and his two children are offered an interferon-gamma release assay to detect exposure. Which type of cell is responsible for releasing interferon-gamma as part of the immune response?
Your Answer: T Helper 2 cells (Th2 cells)
Correct Answer: T Helper 1 cells (Th1 cells)
Explanation:Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 123
Incorrect
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You encounter a patient in the Emergency department who has been in a severe car accident. You need to insert a venous cannula for aggressive fluid resuscitation. Applying the Hagen-Poiseuille equation, you select a cannula with appropriate dimensions for maximum flow into the vein.
As per this law, which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Flow is not affected by the viscosity of the fluid
Correct Answer: Flow will be faster through a shorter cannula
Explanation:Poiseuille’s Equation and Fluid Flow in Cylinders
Poiseuille’s equation is used to describe the flow of non-pulsatile laminar fluids through a cylinder. The equation states that the flow rate is directly proportional to the pressure driving the fluid and the fourth power of the radius. Additionally, it is inversely proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the tube. This means that a short, wide cannula with pressure on the bag will deliver fluids more rapidly than a long, narrow one.
It is important to note that even small changes in the radius of a tube can greatly affect the flow rate. This is because the fourth power of the radius is used in the equation. Therefore, any changes in the radius will have a significant impact on the flow rate. Poiseuille’s equation is crucial in determining the optimal conditions for fluid delivery in medical settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A follow-up study is conducted to examine the weight of 100 adults who were given steroids during their teenage years. The average weight of the adults is 70kg, with a standard deviation of 8 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: 1.69
Correct Answer: 1.6
Explanation:To calculate the standard error of the mean, divide the standard deviation by the square root of the number of patients. For example, if the standard deviation is 16 and there are 100 patients, the standard error of the mean would be 1.6.
Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean
The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.
To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.
A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 125
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a significant amount of blood in his urine over the past two days. He reports having occasional blood in his urine previously, but it has now turned red. He denies any fever but complains of feeling fatigued. The patient has a 25 pack years history of smoking and has worked in a factory that produces dyes for his entire career. The doctor orders a ureteroscopy, which reveals an abnormal growth in his bladder. What is the highest risk factor for the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: 2-naphthylamine
Explanation:The patient’s painless hematuria and fatigue, combined with a history of smoking and occupation in a dye factory, suggest a diagnosis of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the observation of an abnormal growth in the bladder during ureteroscopy (First Aid 2017, p219 & p569).
1. Arsenic is a carcinogen that raises the risk of angiosarcoma of the liver, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, and lung cancer.
2. Aromatic amines, such as 2-naphthylamine and benzidine, are carcinogens that increase the risk of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. They are commonly used in dye manufacturing.
3. Aflatoxins from Aspergillus increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. Aflatoxins are frequently found in crops like peanuts and maize.
4. Nitrosamines in smoked foods are linked to an increased risk of stomach cancer.
5.Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The risk factors for urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma of the bladder include smoking, which is the most important risk factor in western countries. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, and rubber manufacture are also risk factors. Cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, is also a risk factor for this type of bladder cancer. On the other hand, the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder include schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman has been referred to the haematology clinic due to intermittent lymphadenopathy affecting her neck for the past 18 months. Following a biopsy, the histology report suggests a possible diagnosis of follicular lymphoma. To assist with the diagnosis, genetic analysis is conducted.
What is the most probable genomic alteration that will be detected?Your Answer: T(8;14) causing c-myc gene translocation
Correct Answer: T(14;18) causing increased BCL-2 transcription
Explanation:Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A nursing student is drawing blood from a patient in their 60s who has a confirmed case of hepatitis C. While wearing gloves, the student accidentally pricks their finger with the needle. The injury site is bleeding when the glove is removed and the nursing student follows the hospital's protocol for needle-stick injuries.
What is the likelihood of the nursing student testing positive for hepatitis C after the incident?Your Answer: 98%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury following 3 days of diarrhoea and vomiting. Laboratory results reveal that his potassium levels are below normal limits, likely due to his gastrointestinal symptoms. You review his medications to ensure that none are exacerbating the situation and discover that he is taking diuretics for heart failure management. Which of the following diuretics is linked to hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Bumetanide
Explanation:Hypokalaemia may be caused by loop diuretics such as bumetanide. It is important to note that spironolactone, triamterene, eplerenone, and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretics and are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia. In this case, the patient has been admitted to the hospital with acute kidney injury (AKI) due to diarrhoea and vomiting, which are also possible causes of hypokalaemia. It is important to manage all of these factors. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and in rare cases, paralysis.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of increased fatigue, especially towards the end of the day. Her husband notices visible signs of tiredness, with her eyes almost closed.
During the examination, the doctor observes a mass on the front of the neck and mild ptosis on both sides. To further investigate, the doctor instructs the patient to look down for a brief period and then return to primary gaze. Bilateral eyelid twitching is present upon returning to primary gaze.
What is the most commonly associated antibody with the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: No associated antibodies
Correct Answer: Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and physical exam findings suggest a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG). This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and can cause weakness and fatigue in the muscles. The presence of ptosis and diplopia, particularly worsening with prolonged use, is a common presentation in MG. Additionally, the presence of Cogan’s sign, twitching of the eyelids after a period of down-gazing, is a useful bedside test to assess for MG.
It is important to note that anti-smooth muscle antibodies, antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels, and antimitochondrial antibodies are not associated with MG. These antibodies are instead associated with autoimmune hepatitis, Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome, and primary biliary cholangitis, respectively.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A researcher wants to determine if amoxicillin is more effective than azithromycin in treating pneumonia in elderly patients. A randomized controlled trial has been designed.
What is the null hypothesis for this study?Your Answer: Amoxicillin is inferior to azithromycin in empirically treating pneumonia
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin and azithromycin are equally effective in empirically treating pneumonia
Explanation:The null hypothesis proposes that there is no difference between two treatments in terms of their effectiveness, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference. For example, the statement There is no significant difference in the efficacy of amoxicillin and azithromycin for treating pneumonia represents the null hypothesis.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 131
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of edema around his eyes and ankles. Upon further inquiry, he reports having foamy urine and is diagnosed with hypertension. The physician suggests that a biopsy of the affected organ would be the most informative diagnostic tool.
Considering the organ most likely involved in his symptoms, what would be the optimal approach for obtaining a biopsy?Your Answer: Posteriorly, inferior to the 12 rib and adjacent to the spine
Explanation:The safest way to access the kidneys is from the patient’s back, as they are retroperitoneal structures. Attempting to access them from the front or side would involve passing through the peritoneum, which increases the risk of infection. The kidneys are located near the spine and can be accessed below the 12th rib.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He reports experiencing pins and needles in his hands in the early morning hours, and a positive Tinel's sign. Which muscle is most likely to be weak?
Your Answer: Flexor pollicis brevis
Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation:Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Median Nerve Innervation
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can cause weakness in the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve. This muscle, along with the opponens pollicis, is controlled by the median nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle may also be innervated by either the median or ulnar nerve. In this case, the symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often associated with acromegaly. Early intervention is crucial in treating carpal tunnel syndrome, as permanent nerve damage can occur if decompression is delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 133
Incorrect
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Which of the following poses the lowest risk of developing osteoporosis for individuals in their 20s?
Your Answer: Long term unfractionated heparin therapy
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Osteoporosis is more likely to occur in individuals with low body weight.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A geriatric medicine trainee has developed a research project that they aim to publish in a high impact factor journal.
Two groups of elderly patients with hypertension are randomly assigned to receive treatment with amlodipine or lisinopril for a six week period.
At the end of the six week trial period, each participant is asked to rate the effectiveness of their specific treatment on lowering their blood pressure. The rating scale is from 1-5, where 1 indicates 'very ineffective' and 5 indicates 'very effective'.
As the data is not normally distributed, what statistical test should be utilized to determine if there is a significant difference between the two treatments?Your Answer: Student's t-test (unpaired)
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for comparing ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data is the Mann-Whitney U test. This test is necessary when dealing with non-normally distributed data, such as Likert items. In contrast, the chi-squared test is used to compare percentages, while the student’s t-test (paired or unpaired) requires normally distributed data and/or paired observations. As the data in this scenario involves two different groups receiving different interventions, the Mann-Whitney U test is the most appropriate choice.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is being released from the hospital following an episode of acute testicular pain. The cause of his admission was an anatomical abnormality related to the processus vaginalis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:The gubernaculum is responsible for assisting the testicles in descending from the abdomen to the scrotum, while the processus vaginalis precedes this descent and then closes. Abnormalities such as a patent processus vaginalis, also known as bell clapper deformity, can increase the risk of testicular torsion. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when the left renal vein is compressed between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta, leading to a varicocele due to the left gonadal vein draining into the left renal vein. Acute testicular pain may be caused by epididymitis or mumps orchitis, but these conditions are not related to defects in the processus vaginalis. Signs of bowel obstruction may indicate an incarcerated inguinal hernia.
The Development of Testicles in Foetal Life
During foetal life, the testicles are situated within the abdominal cavity. They are initially found on the posterior abdominal wall, at the same level as the upper lumbar vertebrae. The gubernaculum testis, which is attached to the inferior aspect of the testis, extends downwards to the inguinal region and through the canal to the superficial skin. Both the testis and the gubernaculum are located outside the peritoneum.
As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall, known as the processus vaginalis. The testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum. By the third month of foetal life, the testes are located in the iliac fossae, and by the seventh month, they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.
After birth, the processus vaginalis usually closes, but it may persist and become the site of indirect hernias. Partial closure may also lead to the development of cysts on the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 136
Correct
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You are the physician attending to a 32-year-old expectant mother who is experiencing discomfort in her thumb and index finger. She reports paraesthesia in the palmar region of her thumb and index finger, which worsens at night.
What nerve is likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:The patient is experiencing pins and needles and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. These symptoms are indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome, which occurs when the median nerve is compressed due to increased pressure in the carpal tunnel. The distribution of the patient’s symptoms aligns with the area supplied by the median nerve.
The inferior lateral cutaneous nerve does not innervate the thumb and index finger, so it cannot explain the patient’s symptoms. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would cause weakness in the upper arm flexors and impaired sensation in the lateral forearm, but not in the thumb and index finger.
The radial nerve is responsible for wrist extension, and damage to it would result in wrist drop and altered sensation in the dorsum of the hand. The ulnar nerve causes clawing of the hand and paraesthesia in the medial two fingers when damaged, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department after his GP performed an ECG due to complaints of palpitations, which showed active changes associated with hyperkalaemia. The emergency department confirms these changes and an arterial blood gas reveals a serum potassium level of 6.9 mmol/l. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment. What intervention will stabilize the cardiac membrane?
Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is present in the patient.
Although all the options are used in treating hyperkalaemia, they have distinct roles. Calcium gluconate is the only option used to stabilise the cardiac membrane.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at sea following a sailing accident. He is currently unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2 V3 M4).
His vital signs include a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 34.8 ºC. An ECG is unremarkable and venous blood indicates type 2 respiratory failure. The patient's oxygen dissociation curve shows a leftward shift.
What is the cause of the leftward shift in this 26-year-old patient's oxygen dissociation curve?Your Answer: Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:The only answer that causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is hypothermia. When tissues undergo aerobic respiration, they generate heat, which changes the shape of the haemoglobin molecule and reduces its affinity for oxygen. This results in the release of oxygen at respiring tissues. In contrast, lower temperatures in the lungs cause a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, which increases the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.
Hypercapnia is not the correct answer because it causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. Hypercapnia lowers blood pH, which changes the shape of haemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen.
Hypoxaemia is not the correct answer because the partial pressure of oxygen does not affect the oxygen dissociation curve. The partial pressure of oxygen does not change the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.
Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is not the correct answer because higher concentrations of 2,3-DPG reduce haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, causing a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip is sensitive to touch and x-rays are ordered to check for a possible intertrochanteric fracture. What is the typical degree of the angle between the femoral neck and shaft?
Your Answer: 105o
Correct Answer: 130o
Explanation:The femoral head and shaft typically form an angle of 130 degrees, but any deviations from this angle may indicate underlying disease or pathology and require further examination.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 140
Correct
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Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve?
Your Answer: Opponens pollicis
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.
The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 141
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with chronic cardiac failure visits his doctor and reports experiencing dyspnoea even with minimal physical exertion, and only feeling comfortable when at rest. What class of the New York Heart Association scale does he fall under?
Your Answer: III
Explanation:The NYHA Scale for Cardiac Failure Patients
The NYHA scale is a tool used to standardize the description of the severity of cardiac failure patients. It classifies patients into four categories based on their symptoms and limitations of activities. Class I patients have no limitations and do not experience any symptoms during ordinary activities. Class II patients have mild limitations and are comfortable with rest or mild exertion. Class III patients have marked limitations and are only comfortable at rest. Finally, Class IV patients should be at complete rest and are confined to bed or chair. Any physical activity brings discomfort and symptoms occur even at rest.
The NYHA scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the severity of cardiac failure in patients. It helps to determine the appropriate treatment plan and level of care needed for each patient. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can communicate more effectively with each other and with patients about the severity of their condition. It also helps patients to understand their limitations and adjust their activities accordingly. Overall, the NYHA scale is a valuable tool in the management of cardiac failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 142
Correct
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A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He is agitated, restless, and anxious.
Upon examination, dilated pupils are observed, and an ECG reveals sinus tachycardia.
The patient has a medical history of chronic asthma and is currently taking modified-release theophylline tablets.
According to his mother, he returned from a trip to Pakistan last night and has been taking antibiotics for bacterial gastroenteritis for the past four days. He has three days left on his antibiotic course.
What could be the cause of his current presentation?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Terbinafine is frequently prescribed for the treatment of fungal nail infections as an antifungal medication.
Theophylline and its Poisoning
Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.
However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his right lower limb following a gang altercation. During the assessment, it was discovered that he had lost sensation in the right 1st webbed space, but sensation remained intact across the rest of the dorsum of his right foot. Additionally, he was unable to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Deep fibular/peroneal nerve
Explanation:The deep fibular/peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the first web space of the foot and supplying the dorsiflexors of the foot. It is a branch of the common fibular/peroneal nerve, which bifurcates from the sciatic nerve at the popliteal fossa. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve travels alongside the anterior tibial artery in the anterior compartment of the leg, crosses the ankle joint, and terminates deep to the extensor retinaculum. Its medial branch provides cutaneous sensory innervation to the first web space between the great toe and second toe. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve also supplies motor function to the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis/peroneus tertius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness in these muscles.
The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions
The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.
After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 144
Incorrect
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During a routine visit, a 76-year-old man with a history of stable angina informs his GP about his recent hospitalization due to decompensated heart failure. The hospital staff had taken a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level which was found to be significantly elevated. He was treated with intravenous furosemide and responded positively. What are the cardiovascular impacts of BNP?
Your Answer: Increases afterload only
Correct Answer: Decreases preload and afterload
Explanation:Brain natriuretic peptide is a peptide that is secreted by the myocardium in response to excessive stretching, typically seen in cases of heart failure. Its primary physiological roles include reducing systemic vascular resistance, thereby decreasing afterload, and increasing natriuresis and diuresis. This increased diuresis results in a decrease in venous blood volume, leading to a reduction in preload. The BNP level can be a valuable diagnostic tool for heart failure and may also serve as a prognostic indicator.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 145
Correct
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A patient in his 50s has undergone a muscle biopsy for progressive muscle weakness. During his clinic visit, the doctor presents a histological specimen and indicates the sarcomere. What is the doctor referring to?
Your Answer: The region between two Z-lines on the myofibril
Explanation:The area between Z lines is known as the sarcomere. The skeletal muscle is composed of the following elements, as shown in the diagram.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old athlete suffers an injury during a soccer game after a fall. Due to the injury, she cannot flex the metacarpophalangeal joint or proximal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger. All other sensory and motor functions remain intact.
What anatomical structure is likely to have been affected?Your Answer: Flexor indicis distalis
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation:The muscle responsible for flexing the MCPs and PIPs is the flexor digitorum superficialis. The flexor digitorum profundus is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint, while the flexor carpi ulnaris flexes and adducts the wrist. The flexor digiti minimi brevis is responsible for flexing the little (5th) finger. It should be noted that there is no muscle called the flexor indicis distalis.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency surgical theatre with multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is hypotensive despite resuscitative measures. During a laparotomy, a profusely bleeding vessel is found at a certain level of the lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is identified as the testicular artery and is ligated to stop the bleeding. At which vertebral level was the artery identified?
Your Answer: T8
Correct Answer: L2
Explanation:The testicular arteries originate from the abdominal aorta at the level of the second lumbar vertebrae (L2).
The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male has been referred to a neurologist for persistent headache, nausea, and vomiting. After an MRI scan, a biopsy reveals a low-grade tumor with associated cysts. Which type of cell is responsible for removing excess potassium ions from the cerebrospinal fluid in the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Schwann cells
Correct Answer: Astrocytes
Explanation:Astrocytes play a crucial role in eliminating surplus potassium ions from the cerebrospinal fluid. They also provide structural support to neurons, aid in the formation of the blood-brain barrier, and assist in the physical repair of neuronal tissues. In a medical context, the low-grade tumor is likely to be a pilocytic astrocytoma.
Schwann cells are responsible for myelinating peripheral axons, while microglia function as phagocytes in the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes, on the other hand, are responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system.
The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.
In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe injury
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe injury
Explanation:Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.
Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.
If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.
The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.
Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 150
Incorrect
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In pediatric patients with sickle cell disease, what is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?
Your Answer: Enterobacter
Correct Answer: Salmonella species
Explanation:Salmonella is the most common infecting organism in children with osteomyelitis worldwide.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely to be a primary delusion.
Which of the following is most commonly associated with this symptom?Your Answer: Severe depression
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Primary delusions are unique in that they cannot be attributed to any previous psychopathological state, such as a mood disorder. Delusions are characterized by an unshakeable, false belief that is not accepted by others in the patient’s culture. The patient perceives no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief.
The correct answer is Schizophrenia, as primary delusions are often observed in this disorder and other psychotic disorders. In contrast, mania and severe depression are more likely to cause secondary delusions that are related to the patient’s underlying mood.
Anorexia nervosa typically does not involve true delusions, but it may involve over-valued ideas that the person becomes preoccupied with.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is on warfarin for recurrent deep vein thrombosis. His INR is usually stable at 2.5. However, during a recent clinic visit, the doctor noticed a significant decrease in the effectiveness of his warfarin. The doctor suspects that the patient may have consumed more vitamin K than usual. Can you identify a food that is high in vitamin K?
Your Answer: Orange juice
Correct Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Vitamin K and Warfarin
Vitamin K is an essential nutrient that comes in two forms: vitamin K1 from plant sources and vitamin K2 from animal sources. It can be found in green vegetables like spinach, cabbage, and broccoli, as well as in liver and eggs. However, when taking warfarin, a medication used to reduce blood clotting, it is important to maintain a stable intake of vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the liver enzyme responsible for recycling vitamin K, which is necessary for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It takes several days for warfarin to reach a therapeutic level, as it depletes the body’s store of vitamin K. Any sudden changes in vitamin K intake can affect the medication’s effectiveness, so it is important to maintain a consistent diet while taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with his mother. He has been diagnosed with asthma for two years and is currently on a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and reliever inhaler. However, his mother is concerned as he still experiences symptoms and needs to use his reliever inhaler four to five times per week. You plan to prescribe a medication that targets leukotrienes, which are known to contribute to bronchoconstriction. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: It blocks leukotriene synthesis which reduces leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer: It blocks leukotriene binding to and activating smooth muscle, preventing leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction
Explanation:Montelukast is a drug that works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activation of smooth muscle by leukotrienes and prevents bronchoconstriction. Mast cell stabilising drugs, on the other hand, do not have any effect on leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction as they only prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory cell mediators. Nedocromil is an example of a mast cell stabiliser used for asthma. Montelukast does not affect mucus production or leukotriene synthesis or recycling. It specifically blocks leukotriene binding to smooth muscle receptors in the airways.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.
Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults
Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 155
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 12-year-old girl who has been experiencing recurrent infections. She has been diagnosed with multiple episodes of pneumonia and sinusitis. Her sputum cultures have grown Streptococcus pneumonia in the past. Additionally, she had two episodes of meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Sarah is currently experiencing another chest infection, and her sputum cultures have grown Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Her blood tests are as follows:
- Hb 150 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 320 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0-7.0)
- Lymphs 2.0 * 109/L (1.0-3.5)
- Mono 0.6 * 109/L (0.2-0.8)
- Eosin 0.4 * 109/L (0.0-0.4)
An isolated IgG level was measured and has returned normal. However, you are concerned that Sarah may have an underlying immunoglobulin deficiency based on her pattern of infections. Which immunoglobulin is likely affected?Your Answer: IgD
Correct Answer: IgM
Explanation:Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 µmol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.
Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 157
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest tightness and severe shortness of breath. While being evaluated, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and experiences cardiac arrest. Despite receiving appropriate life-saving measures, there is no return of spontaneous circulation and the patient is declared dead. Upon autopsy, a slit-like tear is discovered in the anterior wall of the left ventricle.
What factors may have contributed to the cardiac finding observed in this patient?Your Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis
Explanation:Left Ventricular Free Wall Rupture Post-MI
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the weakened myocardial wall may be unable to contain high left ventricular (LV) pressures, leading to mechanical complications such as left ventricular free wall rupture. This occurs 3-14 days post-MI and is characterized by macrophages and granulation tissue at the margins. Patients are also at high risk of papillary muscle rupture and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm. The patient’s autopsy finding of a slit-like tear in the anterior LV wall is consistent with this complication.
Coronary atherosclerosis is the most likely cause of the patient’s MI, as it is a common underlying condition. Prolonged alcohol consumption and recent viral infection can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy, while recurrent bacterial pharyngitis can cause inflammatory damage to both the myocardium and valvular endocardium. Repeated blood transfusion is not a known risk factor for left ventricular free wall rupture.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 158
Incorrect
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Rachel is a 26-year-old female who arrives at the emergency department with an anteriorly dislocated shoulder and fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus.
What signs are most likely to be elicited due to the probable nerve damage?Your Answer: Loss of sensation in the axilla
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over the deltoid muscle on the outer-upper arm
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing difficulty abducting their arm after a humeral neck fracture, it may be due to damage to the axillary nerve. This nerve is commonly affected by anterior shoulder dislocations and surgical neck fractures of the humerus. The axillary nerve provides sensation to the area over the deltoid muscle, known as the regimental area. It is important to note that the skin over the olecranon is supplied by the radial nerve, while the intercostobrachial nerve supplies the skin over the axilla. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for supplying sensation to the skin over the palmar surface of the lateral forearm. Damage to the axillary nerve would not specifically affect the C6 dermatome.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed with a shattered bottle in his back, resulting in a spinal cord injury where half of the spinal cord is severed.
What will be the impact on pain perception after this injury?Your Answer: No change
Correct Answer: Loss on the opposite side below the injury
Explanation:When the spinothalamic tract is damaged on one side of the spinal cord, the pain sensation is lost on the opposite side of the body below the injury. This is because the spinothalamic tract crosses over (decusates) in the spinal cord one level above where the stimulus enters. The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting pain signals from the dorsal horns on the opposite side of the spinal cord where the primary sensory neuron enters. However, sensation above the injury remains unaffected. This can be a confusing concept, but in practice, it means that pain sensation is lost on one side of the body below the injury.
The Spinothalamic Tract and its Function in Sensory Transmission
The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting impulses from receptors that measure crude touch, pain, and temperature. It is composed of two tracts, the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts, with the former transmitting pain and temperature and the latter crude touch and pressure.
Before decussating in the spinal cord, neurons transmitting these signals ascend by one or two vertebral levels in Lissaurs tract. Once they have crossed over, they pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus. This pathway is crucial in the transmission of sensory information from the body to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli.
Overall, the spinothalamic tract plays a vital role in our ability to sense and respond to our environment. Its function in transmitting sensory information is essential for our survival and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being stabbed in the back. The knife has penetrated his spinal column at a perpendicular angle, causing damage to the termination of his spinal cord.
Which spinal level has been affected by the knife's penetration?Your Answer: S1
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:In adults, the level of L1 is where the spinal cord usually ends.
Lumbar Puncture Procedure
Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s terminates at L1.
During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.
Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his doctor and requests a change in medication due to coughing caused by his ACE-inhibitor for hypertension. He is switched to losartan, an angiotensin-II receptor blocker. Losartan's pharmacological activity is mainly due to an active metabolite that binds to an allosteric site on the AT1 receptor, causing a conformational change that reduces the ability of angiotensin-II to bind and activate it.
What is the type of antagonism exhibited by losartan?Your Answer: Partial agonism
Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonism
Explanation:A non-competitive antagonist functions by binding to an allosteric site on the receptor, which induces a change in the active binding site where an agonist would typically bind. In contrast, a competitive antagonist binds to the same site as the endogenous ligand, but does not activate the receptor. An uncompetitive antagonist is similar to a non-competitive antagonist, but requires receptor activation before binding to the allosteric site. A partial agonist binds to the active site of a receptor, but produces a weaker effect than the endogenous ligand. Finally, an inverse agonist binds to the same site as an agonist, but produces the opposite pharmacological effect.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with long standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department (ED) with shortness of breath over the last 2 hours and wheezing. On examination, he is cyanosed, has a third heart sound present and has widespread wheeze on auscultation. The emergency doctor also notices hepatomegaly which was not present 10 days ago when he was in the ED for a moderative exacerbation of COPD.
What is the likely cause of the newly developed hepatomegaly in this 67-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?Your Answer: Cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s hepatomegaly is likely subacute onset cor pulmonale, which is right sided heart failure secondary to COPD. This is supported by the presence of shortness of breath, cyanosis, and a third heart sound. Left sided heart failure is unlikely to be the cause of his symptoms and hepatomegaly. While ascites can be a complication of right sided heart failure and portal hypertension, it does not cause hepatomegaly. Cirrhosis and liver cancer are also unlikely causes given the patient’s presentation, which is more consistent with a cardiorespiratory issue.
Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.
Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.
Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male is admitted with cellulitis of his left lower limbs. A swab culture grows MRSA sensitive to vancomycin, teicoplanin and linezolid. You opt to treat him with teicoplanin.
What is the mode of action of teicoplanin?Your Answer: Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall formation
Explanation:Teicoplanin, a glycopeptide antibiotic similar to vancomycin, has a longer duration of action, allowing for once daily administration after the initial dose. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting bacterial cell wall formation. Other antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis include macrolides, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines, while those that inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis include quinolones like ciprofloxacin. Rifampicin inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis, while trimethoprim and co-trimoxazole inhibit bacterial folic acid formation.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She has a history of squamous cell lung carcinoma. What could be the possible reason for her polyuria?
Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Polyuria is caused by all the options listed above, except for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. However, the patient’s age does not match the typical onset of type 1 diabetes, which usually occurs in young individuals. Furthermore, squamous cell lung carcinoma is commonly associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome that results in the release of excess parathyroid hormone by the tumor, leading to hypercalcemia and subsequent polyuria, along with other symptoms such as renal and biliary stones, bone pain, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, depression, and anxiety.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A teenage patient presents with primary amenorrhoea. Upon ultrasound examination, it is discovered that she is missing both her Fallopian tubes and uterus. What is the typical embryological structure that gives rise to these organs?
Your Answer: Allantois
Correct Answer: Paramesonephric duct
Explanation:The fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper 1/3 of the vagina in females are derived from the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct, while it degenerates in males.
The urachus is formed by the regression of the allantois.
Structures of the head and neck are developed from the pharyngeal arches.
The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric duct.
The internal female reproductive structures are formed from the paramesonephric duct.
The kidney is developed from the ureteric bud.
Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals
During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.
In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.
In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical screening. She has always attended her appointments and has never had a positive result for high-risk HPV. She reports feeling healthy and has no current concerns.
During the examination, a small Nabothian cyst is observed on the ectocervix.
What type of epithelium is typically present on this area of the cervix?Your Answer: Simple columnar epithelium
Correct Answer: Stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium
Explanation:The lining of the ectocervix consists of non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Anatomy of the Uterus
The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.
The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the drug's properties, you observe that the rate of excretion remains constant despite an increase in its concentration.
Which medication exhibits this unique pharmacokinetic characteristic?Your Answer: Apixaban
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:When drugs are excreted by zero-order kinetics, the rate at which they are eliminated from the body remains constant regardless of their concentration in the body. This is different from first-order kinetics, where the elimination rate is proportional to the drug’s plasma concentration. Some examples of drugs that follow zero-order kinetics include aspirin, phenytoin, ethanol, and fluoxetine, while drugs like amitriptyline, ampicillin, apixaban, and atenolol follow first-order kinetics.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 168
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with severe sepsis is admitted to the ICU. Despite the implementation of the sepsis 6 bundle, the patient's condition deteriorates and bleeding is discovered at all peripheral venous cannula sites. The patient's respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, heart rate is 124 beats/min, and blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg. A coagulation profile is requested and the results show a prolonged prothrombin time, a decreased fibrinogen level and a significantly elevated D-dimer. What is the probable cause of the bleeding based on these results and the clinical picture?
Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:DIC is a severe and life-threatening complication that typically presents as a late sign of sepsis. The coagulation profile can confirm the diagnosis by revealing specific abnormalities, such as a prolonged prothrombin time indicating a bleeding tendency, depleted fibrinogen levels due to clot formation, and elevated D-dimer levels indicating the body’s efforts to dissolve clots.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Under normal conditions, the coagulation and fibrinolysis processes work together to maintain hemostasis. However, in cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One of the critical factors in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. TF is normally not in contact with the circulation but is exposed after vascular damage or in response to cytokines and endotoxins. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway and the formation of clots.
DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy. Diagnosis of DIC typically involves a blood test that shows decreased platelet count and fibrinogen levels, prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia may also be present, leading to the formation of schistocytes.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology and diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective management of this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 169
Correct
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When administering blood transfusions, certain patients may necessitate irradiated blood components to avoid the development of transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GvHD).
What distinguishes this specific blood product from standard blood products in terms of preventing TA-GvHD?Your Answer: They are depleted in T-lymphocytes
Explanation:Irradiated blood products are utilized because they have been stripped of T-lymphocytes, which can trigger severe reactions and even death if recognized as foreign agents by the host. This special requirement is particularly necessary for patients who are vulnerable to TA-GvHD, such as those with immune deficiencies or Hodgkin’s lymphoma. On the other hand, CMV negative blood products are used to minimize the risk of CMV transmission in neonates or immunocompromised individuals. In some cases, washed blood products may be ordered for patients who experience recurrent severe allergic transfusion reactions or urticarial reactions that are not prevented by pre-transfusion antihistamine and corticosteroid administration. It is important to note that the depletion of B-lymphocytes is not a primary reason for using irradiated blood products, and there is no evidence that irradiation reduces the risk of TA-GvHD by depleting eosinophil count.
CMV Negative and Irradiated Blood Products
Blood products that are CMV negative and irradiated are used in specific situations to prevent certain complications. CMV is a virus that is transmitted through leucocytes, but as most blood products are now leucocyte depleted, CMV negative products are not often needed. However, in situations where CMV transmission is a concern, such as in granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, immunocompromised patients, and those with/previous Hodgkin lymphoma, CMV negative blood products are used.
On the other hand, irradiated blood products are depleted of T-lymphocytes and are used to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) caused by engraftment of viable donor T lymphocytes. Irradiated blood products are used in situations such as granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, and in patients who have received chemotherapy or have congenital immunodeficiencies.
In summary, CMV negative and irradiated blood products are used in specific situations to prevent complications related to CMV transmission and TA-GVHD. The use of these blood products is determined based on the patient’s medical history and condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of alcohol abuse. Upon further inquiry, he acknowledges having a persistent issue with excessive drinking. He reports no difficulties in maintaining a well-rounded diet.
Which vitamin should be emphasized as the most crucial for him to supplement regularly?Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Alcoholics are at risk of developing a thiamine deficiency, which can lead to serious health issues such as Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Therefore, it is recommended that they supplement with thiamine to prevent this deficiency. Vitamin A supplementation is not necessary for individuals with alcohol issues, and there are few medical indications for vitamin A supplementation in general. While alcoholics may be at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency, it is typically possible to obtain enough of this vitamin from the diet unless they follow a vegan diet. Similarly, vitamin B3 deficiency is rare in alcoholics unless they also become malnourished.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of ear pain. He mentions that the pain started yesterday and has been preventing him from working. He also reports experiencing dizziness and muffled sounds on the affected side. During the examination, you notice that he has a fever and a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he has a middle ear infection. Now, you wonder which ossicle the tensor tympani muscle inserts into.
Which ossicle does the tensor tympani muscle insert into?Your Answer: Incus
Correct Answer: Malleus
Explanation:The tensor tympani muscle is located in a bony canal above the pharyngotympanic tube and originates from the cartilaginous portion of the tube, the bony canal, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. Its function is to reduce the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear by pulling the handle of the malleus medially when contracted. This muscle is innervated by the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.
The middle ear contains three ossicles, which are the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral and attaches to the tympanic membrane, while the incus lies between and articulates with the other two ossicles. The stapes is the most medial and is connected to the oval window of the cochlea. The stapedius muscle is associated with the stapes. The lunate and trapezium are not bones of the middle ear but are carpal bones.
A patient with ear pain, difficulty hearing, dizziness, and fever may have otitis media, which is confirmed on otoscopy by a bulging tympanic membrane and visible fluid level.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old obese male presents with recurrent episodes of colicky pain and bloating in the left iliac fossa. The patient has no significant medical history but has been a smoker for 25 years and does not consume alcohol. He works at a fast-food restaurant and usually eats his meals there.
Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37ºC, respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99% on air, heart rate of 60 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 125/70 mmHg. Abdominal and digital rectal examination reveal no significant findings. A colonoscopy was subsequently performed, which revealed multiple diverticula along the sigmoid colon.
What is the most appropriate course of management for this patient?Your Answer: Encourage smoking cessation
Correct Answer: Encourage high-fibre diet
Explanation:The development of intestinal diverticula is strongly linked to a low fibre diet, making it a major risk factor. To manage mild symptoms, patients are advised to modify their diet by gradually increasing fibre intake over several weeks and staying hydrated.
IV antibiotics and fluids are not necessary for diverticular disease, as it is not the same as diverticulitis.
Surgery is not recommended for uncomplicated diverticular disease.
While encouraging smoking cessation is important, dietary modification is the most suitable option for this patient.
Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.
Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 173
Incorrect
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You are developing a research plan to investigate the impact of prolonged fasting on lipid stores in elderly individuals. Your aim is to examine the influence of diet on the breakdown of fats. To achieve this, you opt to track the levels of the rate limiting enzyme involved in this process following a high glucose load.
Which specific enzyme will you be monitoring?Your Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I
Explanation:Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of lipolysis, while glycogen phosphorylase is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of glycolysis. Finally, glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A patient in her mid-40s complains of numbness on the left side of her face. During cranial nerve examination, it is discovered that the left, lower third of her face has lost sensation, which is the area controlled by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. Through which structure does this nerve branch pass?
Your Answer: Foramen rotundum
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve travels through the foramen ovale. Other nerves that pass through different foramina include the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve through the foramen rotundum, the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves through the foramen magnum, and the meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve through the foramen spinosum.
Foramina of the Skull
The foramina of the skull are small openings in the bones that allow for the passage of nerves and blood vessels. These foramina are important for the proper functioning of the body and can be tested on exams. Some of the major foramina include the optic canal, superior and inferior orbital fissures, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and jugular foramen. Each of these foramina has specific vessels and nerves that pass through them, such as the ophthalmic artery and optic nerve in the optic canal, and the mandibular nerve in the foramen ovale. It is important to have a basic understanding of these foramina and their contents in order to understand the anatomy and physiology of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 175
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes is admitted to the ICU due to septic shock caused by COVID-19 infection. Despite receiving intravenous fluids, his blood pressure remains low, and he is given noradrenaline (norepinephrine) to correct it.
What is the function of this neurotransmitter in the body?Your Answer: preganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system
Correct Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:Noradrenaline is the correct postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is used as a vasopressor to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction. Acetylcholine is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, not noradrenaline. There is no one neurotransmitter that serves as a postganglionic neurotransmitter for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Finally, acetylcholine, not noradrenaline, is the preganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.
In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.
It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 176
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a hepatic artery branch?
Your Answer: Right gastric artery
Correct Answer: Pancreatic artery
Explanation:The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at the anal verge. Upon biopsy, the histology reveals squamous cell carcinoma. Which virus infection is most likely to have played a role in the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Human papillomavirus 7
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16
Explanation:Contracting human papillomavirus 16 increases the likelihood of developing intra epithelial dysplasia in the anal skin, which in turn raises the risk of developing invasive cancer.
Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers
Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.
The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.
It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man suffers a closed head injury and experiences a decline in consciousness upon arrival at the hospital. To monitor his intracranial pressure, an ICP monitor is inserted. What is the normal range for intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: 25 - 30 mm Hg
Correct Answer: 7 - 15mm Hg
Explanation:The typical range for intracranial pressure is 7 to 15 mm Hg, with the brain able to tolerate increases up to 24 mm Hg before displaying noticeable clinical symptoms.
Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS
The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.
The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.
It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Bupropion
Correct Answer: Nicotine gum
Explanation:Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 180
Correct
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A couple in their early thirties visit the doctor's office as they have been attempting to conceive for the past year. They are currently 4 days pregnant without realizing it. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer: Morula
Explanation:When the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, it triggers a series of changes. Before this, the LH surge prompts the breakdown of the germinal vesicle that surrounds the enlarged nucleus, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. After fertilization, the pronuclei form, followed by zygote formation, rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation typically occurs on days 5-6. On day 1, the fertilized egg (zygote) is produced, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. By early day 2, it is at the 4-cell stage, and by early day 3, it reaches the 8-cell stage. By late day 3, it has progressed to the 16-cell stage, and on day 4, the morula is formed. Finally, on day 5, the blastocyst is formed.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration
Explanation:The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.
Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.
Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.
Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue and weakness, with a recent increase in shortness of breath upon walking.
Past medical history - vitiligo.
Medications - over the counter multivitamins.
On examination - lung sounds were vesicular with equal air entry bilaterally; mild jaundice noticed in her sclera.
Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 210 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Vitamin B12 105 ng/L (200 - 900)
What is the underlying pathological process given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition where the body’s immune system attacks either the intrinsic factor or the gastroparietal cells, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12 absorption. The patient’s history, examination, and blood results can provide clues to the diagnosis, such as fatigue, dyspnoea, mild jaundice, and low haemoglobin levels. The correct answer for the cause of pernicious anaemia is autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells, as intrinsic factor destruction is not an option. Autoimmune destruction of chief or goblet cells is not related to this condition. Ulcerative colitis may cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely to affect vitamin B12 absorption and cause jaundice.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient is started on azathioprine treatment by a gastroenterologist for Crohn's disease. After six months of treatment, you receive a request from the gastroenterology department to assist with monitoring his treatment.
What is the current recommended protocol for monitoring patients on long-term azathioprine therapy?
Note:
FBC - Full blood count
LFT - Liver function tests
U&E - Urea and electrolytes.Your Answer: FBC and LFT every three months
Correct Answer: FBC, LFT and U&E every three months
Explanation:Azathioprine: A Cytotoxic Agent for Severe Refractory Eczema and Other Conditions
Azathioprine is a cytotoxic drug that is converted to mercaptopurine, which acts as a purine analogue that inhibits DNA synthesis. It is used off-label for severe refractory eczema, post-transplant, and in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease. However, bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity are serious and well-known complications of azathioprine therapy. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, and skin eruptions. Patients with low levels of the enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT), which metabolizes azathioprine, are at increased risk of toxicity, and their enzyme activity is often measured before starting treatment.
To minimize the risk of complications, current guidelines from the British Association of Dermatologists and the British National Formulary recommend monitoring full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and urea and electrolytes (U&E) every three months once patients are established on azathioprine treatment. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the benefits of azathioprine while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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Which bone structure forms the anterior cranial fossa?
Your Answer: The greater wing of the sphenoid
Correct Answer: The lesser wing of the sphenoid
Explanation:Formation of the Anterior Cranial Fossa
The anterior cranial fossa is the front part of the skull base that houses the frontal lobes of the brain. It is formed by three bones: the frontal bone, the sphenoid bone, and the ethmoid bone. The orbital plate of the frontal bone makes up the front part of the fossa, while the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone forms the sides. The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone makes up the back part of the fossa. These three bones come together to create a bony structure that protects the brain and supports the facial structures. The anterior cranial fossa is an important area of the skull as it contains the olfactory bulbs, which are responsible for the sense of smell. Any damage to this area can result in a loss of smell or other neurological deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 185
Incorrect
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As a GP, you are evaluating a 35-year-old female patient who has been experiencing a persistent burning sensation in her epigastrium that is temporarily relieved by eating meals. Your initial suspicion of H. pylori infection was ruled out by a negative serology test, and a two-week trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor and triple eradication therapy failed to alleviate her symptoms. An endoscopy revealed multiple duodenal ulcers, and upon further questioning, the patient disclosed that her mother has a pituitary tumor. Which hormone is most likely to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Correct Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome and Gastrinoma
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a familial condition that predisposes individuals to benign or malignant tumors of the pituitary and pancreas with parathyroid hyperplasia causing hyperparathyroidism. This autosomal dominant inherited syndrome should be considered in patients who present with unusual endocrine tumors, especially if they are relatively young at diagnosis or have a relevant family history.
One manifestation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is the development of a pancreatic tumor called a gastrinoma, which secretes the hormone gastrin. Gastrin stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid from parietal cells in the stomach, which optimizes conditions for protein digesting enzymes. However, excessive production of gastrin can occur in gastrinomas, leading to excessive HCL production that can denature the mucosa and submosa of the gastrointestinal tract, causing symptoms, ulceration, and even perforation of the duodenum.
While other pancreatic tumors can also produce hormones such as insulin or glucagon, the symptoms and clinical findings in this case suggest a diagnosis of gastrinoma. Cholecystokinin and somatostatin are hormones that have inhibitory effects on HCL secretion and do not fit with the clinical picture. Cholecystokinin also produces the feeling of satiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The patient is asymptomatic and has 20/20 vision with glasses. During the examination, it is noted that the patient's intraocular pressure remains significantly elevated despite consistent use of a prostaglandin analogue. The decision is made to initiate treatment with timolol eye drops.
What is the main mode of action of timolol eye drops?Your Answer: Increases trabecular meshwork drainage
Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production
Explanation:Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly used as a second-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which in turn lowers intraocular pressure. Mitotic agents like pilocarpine can cause pupil constriction and may be used in acute closed-angle glaucoma to increase space for aqueous drainage. However, this mechanism is not routinely used in open-angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide can also reduce aqueous production but are taken orally and can cause systemic side effects. Increasing trabecular meshwork drainage is a mechanism used by drugs like pilocarpine, while increasing uveoscleral drainage is achieved by drugs like latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 187
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?
Your Answer: Ansa cervicalis
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The facial nerve innervates the posterior belly of digastric, while the mylohoid nerve innervates the anterior belly.
The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents
The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.
The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.
Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 188
Correct
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A 78-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with eczema and diarrhoea. His daughter, who accompanies him, reports that he has been experiencing memory loss. Upon conducting blood tests, it is revealed that he is suffering from niacin deficiency. Upon further examination, it is discovered that he has a carcinoid tumour in his appendix. How has this tumour led to his deficiency?
Your Answer: Increased metabolism of tryptophan causing decreased biosynthesis of niacin
Explanation:The metabolism of tryptophan is increased in carcinoid syndrome, leading to a deficiency of niacin. However, the presence of a tumour in the appendix is unlikely to affect the absorption of niacin. Niacin is produced in the liver from tryptophan, and a decrease in tryptophan availability would result in a reduction of niacin biosynthesis. There is no indication of excessive niacin metabolism or excretion.
The Importance of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) in the Body
Vitamin B3, also known as niacin, is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It is a crucial nutrient that serves as a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+, which are essential for various metabolic processes in the body. Niacin is synthesized in the body from tryptophan, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods. However, certain conditions such as Hartnup’s disease and carcinoid syndrome can reduce the absorption of tryptophan or increase its metabolism to serotonin, leading to niacin deficiency.
Niacin deficiency can result in a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Pellagra is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to ensure that you are getting enough niacin in your diet or through supplements to maintain optimal health and prevent the risk of niacin deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man is seen in the oncology clinic. He is being monitored for known breast cancer. His recent mammogram and biopsy suggest an increased disease burden. It is decided to initiate Tamoxifen therapy while awaiting a mastectomy.
What is the mechanism of action of this new medication?Your Answer: Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists
Correct Answer: Androgen receptor blocker
Explanation:Bicalutamide is a medication that blocks the androgen receptor and is commonly used to treat prostate cancer. Abiraterone, on the other hand, is an androgen synthesis inhibitor that is prescribed to patients with metastatic prostate cancer who have not responded to androgen deprivation therapy. GnRH agonists like goserelin can also be used to treat prostate cancer by reducing the release of gonadotrophins and inhibiting androgen production. While cyproterone acetate is a steroidal anti-androgen, it is not as commonly used as non-steroidal anti-androgens like bicalutamide.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 190
Incorrect
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Succinic dehydrogenase is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of succinate into fumarate in the Krebs cycle. A team of researchers postulate that malonate may compete with succinate for the active site of succinic dehydrogenase.
The researchers conduct an experiment to determine the impact of doubling the concentration of succinate while maintaining an equal concentration of succinate and malonate on the rate of the reaction catalyzed by succinic dehydrogenase.
What will be the effect on the maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) of succinic dehydrogenase?Your Answer: There is insufficient information to determine the effect on Vmax
Correct Answer: Vmax will remain constant
Explanation:Competitive enzyme inhibitors do not affect Vmax, which means that the correct option is ‘No effect on Vmax’. Malonate, which competes with succinate for the active site of succinic dehydrogenase, is a competitive inhibitor. Non-competitive inhibition, on the other hand, decreases Vmax as non-competitive inhibitors bind to an enzyme’s allosteric site, denaturing the active site and permanently lowering the rate of enzyme-substrate complex formation. Increasing the concentration of substrate increases the rate of enzyme-substrate complex formation, and active sites will be fully saturated with a sufficient concentration of substrate even if competitive inhibitors are present. Therefore, the theoretical maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) is unaffected by the addition of a competitive inhibitor.
Enzyme kinetics is the study of how enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed or altering the position of equilibrium between substrates and products. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics, meaning that there is not a linear response to increasing levels of substrate. Vmax is the maximum rate of the catalyzed reaction, while Km is the concentration of substrate that leads to half-maximal velocity. Enzymes with a low Km have a high affinity for their substrate. The Michaelis-Menten model of a single substrate reaction demonstrates the saturation curve for an enzyme, showing the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate. Linear plots of the Michaelis-Menten model are used to estimate Vmax. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of kinetic data shows how the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax, and as the y-intercept increases, Vmax decreases. There are three types of inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Each type has a different effect on Vmax and Km. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active binding site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind outside the enzyme’s active binding site. Uncompetitive inhibitors are rare and bind to the enzyme, enhancing the binding of substrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 191
Incorrect
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You are assisting in an open right adrenalectomy for a large adrenal adenoma in a slightly older patient. The consultant is momentarily distracted and you take the initiative to pull the adrenal into the wound to improve visibility. Unfortunately, this maneuver results in brisk bleeding. The most likely culprit vessel responsible for this bleeding is:
- Portal vein
- Phrenic vein
- Right renal vein
- Superior mesenteric vein
- Inferior vena cava
The vessel in question drains directly via a very short vessel and if not carefully sutured, it may become avulsed off the IVC. The best management approach for this injury involves the use of a Satinsky clamp and a 6/0 prolene suture.Your Answer: Right renal vein
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The vessel drains directly and is connected by a short pathway. If the sutures are not tied with caution, it could potentially detach from the IVC. In such a scenario, the recommended approach would be to use a Satinsky clamp and a 6/0 prolene suture to manage the injury.
Adrenal Gland Anatomy
The adrenal glands are located superomedially to the upper pole of each kidney. The right adrenal gland is posteriorly related to the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the kidney, medially related to the vena cava, and anteriorly related to the hepato-renal pouch and bare area of the liver. On the other hand, the left adrenal gland is postero-medially related to the crus of the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the pancreas and splenic vessels, and anteriorly related to the lesser sac and stomach.
The arterial supply of the adrenal glands is through the superior adrenal arteries from the inferior phrenic artery, middle adrenal arteries from the aorta, and inferior adrenal arteries from the renal arteries. The right adrenal gland drains via one central vein directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left adrenal gland drains via one central vein into the left renal vein.
In summary, the adrenal glands are small but important endocrine glands located above the kidneys. They have a unique blood supply and drainage system, and their location and relationships with other organs in the body are crucial for their proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 192
Correct
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A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting the medication, he observes that his breasts have become enlarged and there is some discharge. He also confesses to experiencing a decrease in libido and erectile dysfunction.
What dopaminergic pathway is being suppressed to result in this manifestation, which is diagnosed as hyperprolactinemia due to the use of antipsychotics?Your Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Explanation:Antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinaemia by inhibiting the tuberoinfundibular pathway, a dopaminergic pathway that originates from the hypothalamus and extends to the median eminence. This inhibition results in an increase in prolactin levels, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is associated with dysfunction in the nigrostriatal pathway, while schizophrenia is linked to abnormalities in the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways. The corticospinal tract is involved in movement.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 193
Correct
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A 70-year-old male was admitted to the hospital due to delirium observed in the nursing home. Upon diagnosis, he was found to have a lower respiratory tract infection which progressed to sepsis. During his stay in the ICU, he was discovered to have severe hyponatremia. The medical team has prescribed tolvaptan along with other medications.
What is the mechanism of action of tolvaptan?Your Answer: Vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Tolvaptan is a drug that blocks the action of vasopressin at the V2 receptor, which reduces water absorption and increases aquaresis without sodium loss. Vasopressin is a hormone that regulates water balance in the body.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old female patient presents with persistent dyspepsia of 6 months duration. She failed multiple trials of conservative treatment by her GP, therefore, she was referred for the gastroenterologist for further review.
Investigations were done and her urea breath test was negative for Helicobacter pylori. Gastroscopy revealed multiple gastroduodenal ulcers. What type of cells are affected by the high levels of fasting gastrin detected?Your Answer: Goblet cells
Correct Answer: Gastric parietal cells
Explanation:The secretion of gastrin hormone from G cells in the antrum of the stomach is responsible for increasing the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells. Additionally, chief cells secrete pepsin, which is a proteolytic enzyme, while D cells in the pancreas and stomach secrete somatostatin hormone. Gastrin hormone is released in response to distension of the stomach and vagal stimulation.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started to observe that her hands are developing blisters and becoming weepy. After diagnosis, it is found that she has a latex allergy. What pathological process is responsible for this situation?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:ACID is an acronym for the four types of hypersensitivity reactions. These include type 1, which is anaphylactic; type 2, which is cytotoxic; type 3, which is immune complex; and type 4, which is delayed hypersensitivity. Unlike the other types, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated rather than antibody mediated. An example of this type of reaction is chronic contact dermatitis.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother after she found him having seizures. She reports that he has not eaten anything all day. The child is hyperventilating.
Blood results reveal:
- Low fasting glucose
- High urea
- Normal sodium
- Normal potassium
- High triglycerides
- pH of 7.29
Upon palpation of his abdomen, hepatomegaly is noted.
An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows enlarged kidneys.
Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis and underlying cause of this child's presentation?Your Answer: Lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency
Correct Answer: A defect in glucose-6-phosphatase
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is the cause of Von Gierke’s disease. This condition is characterized by an inability to maintain adequate blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive hours of each day, which can lead to seizures due to hypoglycemia. Excessive lactate and urate generation also occur, resulting in hyperuricemia and organ damage. Children are typically diagnosed at 2 years of age and may present with hepatomegaly, hyperventilation, respiratory distress, vomiting, and other manifestations of hypoglycemia. Other enzyme deficiencies and their associated conditions include galactocerebrosidase deficiency in Krabbe’s disease, alpha-L iduronidase deficiency in Hurler’s disease, N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase deficiency in Inclusion cell disease, lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency in Pompe disease, Hexosaminidase A deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease, and alpha-galactosidase deficiency in Fabry’s disease.
Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies
Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.
Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.
Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.
Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 197
Incorrect
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Adrenaline is commonly released into the bloodstream during a normal physiological stress response. Upon entering the systemic circulation, adrenaline interacts with different adrenergic receptors, such as the β1 receptor.
What is the outcome of stimulating this receptor?Your Answer: Negative chronotropic effect on the myocardium
Correct Answer: Positive inotropic effect on the myocardium
Explanation:Stimulation of β1 adrenergic receptors leads to the contraction of cardiac muscle. This is because β1 receptor agonism results in positive inotropic and chronotropic effects, which increase the force and rate of cardiac contractions. It is important to note that β2 receptor agonism causes dilation of respiratory smooth muscle, while α2 receptor agonism inhibits insulin release from pancreatic β cells. The negative chronotropic effect on the myocardium is not caused by β1 receptor agonism, but rather by β1 receptor antagonism. Therefore, adrenaline would have a positive chronotropic effect on the myocardium.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain. The child is crying and mentions that she feels pain in her tummy that comes and goes in 10-minute intervals. Additionally, the mother reports that her daughter has vomited twice and that she has noticed thick blood in her stool.
During the examination, a mass is detected in the center of the abdomen.
A bowel ultrasound is conducted, which shows that the bowel has a doughnut-like appearance.
Which part of the bowel is most likely affected by this condition?Your Answer: Ileoileocolic
Correct Answer: Ileocolic
Explanation:Intussusception, a condition that causes bowel obstruction by the invagination of proximal bowel into a more distal part, is most commonly found in infants. The ileocolic type is the most frequent, although different studies may show varying degrees of frequency for the different types. The pathogenesis of intussusception is still not fully understood, but theories include involvement of lymphoid tissue, abnormalities in inhibitory neurotransmitters, and electrolyte disturbances affecting gastric motility. Ultrasound is an effective diagnostic tool, which may reveal a target, doughnut, or pseudokidney sign. Ileoileocolic and colocolic types are less common.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic worried about her risk of developing Huntington's disease. Her mother was recently diagnosed with the condition and she wants to know if she can be tested. She also wants to understand why, if she tests positive, she may develop symptoms earlier than her mother did.
What is the underlying factor that causes this pattern in Huntington's disease?Your Answer: Epigenetics
Correct Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease, myotonic dystrophy, and fragile X-syndrome exhibit anticipation, where the age of onset of the condition decreases with each successive generation. This is caused by the repeated trinucleotide expanding further in each generation. Epigenetics, which studies changes in gene function that are heritable but do not involve changes in DNA sequence, is not relevant in the progression of Huntington’s symptoms across generations. Expressivity refers to the extent to which a genotype is expressed in an individual’s phenotype, and while Marfan’s disease has varied expressivity, Huntington’s does not. Modes of inheritance, such as autosomal recessive/dominant and X-linked, can affect the severity of a disease but are not responsible for the progressive reduction in age of onset seen in anticipation.
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 200
Incorrect
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Which muscle is not innervated by the trigeminal nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid
Explanation:The facial nerve provides innervation to the stylohyoid.
The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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