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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. The pain started while he was eating and has been constant for the past three hours. It radiates to his back and interscapular region.

      The patient has a history of hypertension for three years, alcohol abuse, and is a heavy smoker of 30 cigarettes per day. On examination, he is cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP is normal, but breath sounds are decreased at the left lung base and a chest x-ray reveals a left pleural effusion.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute Aortic Dissection: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Imaging

      Acute aortic dissection is a medical emergency that causes sudden and severe chest pain. The pain is often described as tearing and may be felt in the front or back of the chest, as well as in the neck. Other symptoms and signs depend on the arteries involved and nearby organs affected. In severe cases, it can lead to hypovolemic shock and sudden death.

      A chest x-ray can show a widened mediastinum, cardiomegaly, pleural effusion, and intimal calcification separated more than 6 mm from the edge. However, aortography is the gold standard for diagnosis, which shows the origin of arteries from true or false lumen. CT scan and MRI are also commonly used for diagnosis. Transoesophageal echo (TEE) is best for the descending aorta, while transthoracic echo (TTE) is best for the ascending aorta and arch.

      In summary, acute aortic dissection is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Symptoms include sudden and severe chest pain, which may be accompanied by other signs depending on the arteries involved. Imaging techniques such as chest x-ray, aortography, CT scan, MRI, TEE, and TTE can aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A colleague of yours admits to being romantically involved with a patient who...

    Correct

    • A colleague of yours admits to being romantically involved with a patient who was discharged 2 days ago. She claims they hit it off when he was an in-patient and have now started dating.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action if the patient was a minor?

      Your Answer: Express your concerns about her dating a recent patient and ask her to consider the implications of it

      Explanation:

      Addressing Concerns About a Colleague Dating a Recent Patient

      When faced with a situation where a colleague is dating a recent patient, it is important to address any concerns directly with the colleague involved. Spreading rumours or threatening the colleague would be unprofessional and unproductive. Congratulating the colleague on their new relationship may not be appropriate either. The best course of action is to express your concerns about the appropriateness of the relationship and ask your colleague to consider the implications of it. While it may be tempting to do nothing, addressing the situation directly is the most appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a...

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    • In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a ligand that binds to a receptor and results in a decrease or complete halt in receptor activity?

      Your Answer: Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Drug-Receptor Interactions

      An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. The drug-receptor interaction is usually reversible, and the agonist can bind to the receptor using various mechanisms. The effects of an agonist are determined by its efficacy of agonism and the degree of receptor occupancy. A full agonist can provoke maximal receptor activity, while a partial agonist can provoke sub-maximal receptor activity. The degree of occupancy is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and the concentration. Even relatively low degrees of receptor occupancy are adequate to achieve a biological response for agonists.

      On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and reduces or inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by its degree of receptor occupancy, affinity to the receptor, and efficacy. A relatively high degree of receptor occupancy is needed for an antagonist to work, and technically, the efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is zero.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and will bind to the same site on the same receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist for binding. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to the same receptor, but they will each have a different binding site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. An agonist molecule is able to bind, but the normal consequences of agonist binding do not occur due to the presence of the antagonist, and biological actions are prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has been experiencing bilateral headaches, neck and shoulder stiffness, and pain for the past two weeks, which is most severe in the morning and improves throughout the day.

      Upon examination, her strength and sensation are normal, but she has limited shoulder and neck range of motion due to discomfort. Her left eye vision is reduced to hand movements only. The patient has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and myocardial infarction and is currently taking atorvastatin, aspirin, ramipril, and bisoprolol.

      What is the most likely finding on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins. This presentation is highly suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) in a female patient of this age, with preceding proximal muscle pain and stiffness that improves throughout the day. The current bilateral headaches and vision loss are likely due to giant cell arthritis (GCA), a complication strongly associated with PMR. GCA can cause anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, leading to optic disc pallor and swelling, as the immune system damages arteries supplying the optic nerve, leading to thrombus formation and occlusion. Cotton wool spots, hard exudates, and blot hemorrhages are incorrect, as they are seen in diabetic retinopathy, which is not present in this patient. Retinal whitening and a cherry red spot are also incorrect, as they describe central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), which presents as sudden-onset painless visual loss, unlike the current presentation of GCA-induced vision loss.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked...

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    • You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old obese woman is admitted with episodic retrosternal chest pain not relieved...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old obese woman is admitted with episodic retrosternal chest pain not relieved by rest, for the past 3 weeks. The pain is described as squeezing in nature, and is not affected by meals or breathing. The episodic pain is of fixed pattern and is of same intensity. She has a background of diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia and hypertension. Her family history is remarkable for a paternal myocardial infarction at the age of 63. She is currently haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute coronary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Coronary Syndrome from Other Cardiac Conditions

      The patient in question presents with retrosternal chest pain that is squeezing in nature and unrelated to meals or breathing. This highly suggests a cardiac origin for the pain. However, the episodic nature of the pain and its duration of onset over three weeks point towards unstable angina, a type of acute coronary syndrome.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from other cardiac conditions such as aortic dissection, which presents with sudden-onset tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. Stable angina pectoris, on the other hand, manifests with episodic cardiac chest pain that has a fixed pattern of precipitation, duration, and termination, lasting at least one month.

      Myocarditis is associated with a constant stabbing chest pain and recent flu-like symptoms or upper respiratory infection. Aortic stenosis may also cause unstable angina, but the most common cause of this condition is critical coronary artery occlusion.

      In summary, careful consideration of the pattern, duration, and characteristics of chest pain can help differentiate acute coronary syndrome from other cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2-month-old infant is scheduled for a hearing screening test. She was born...

    Correct

    • A 2-month-old infant is scheduled for a hearing screening test. She was born at 38 weeks without any pregnancy complications and delivered vaginally. Which hearing test would be most suitable for this child?

      Your Answer: Automated otoacoustic emissions

      Explanation:

      The otoacoustic emission test is specifically designed to screen newborns for hearing issues. Different hearing tests are available for different age groups, but in the UK, newborns are typically screened using the automated otoacoustic emissions test or the evoked otoacoustic emissions test. If any abnormalities are detected, the automated auditory brainstem response test is used as a follow-up. The other hearing tests mentioned are more appropriate for older children. This information is provided by the NHS in the UK.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount of his father's medication. Upon examination, his serum potassium level is found to be 6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9). Which medication is the probable culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Overdose Effects of Various Drugs

      Betablockers, specifically propranolol, can lead to hyperkalaemia due to transmembrane shifts when taken in overdose. Conversely, beta-agonists like salbutamol are known to cause hypokalaemia. Salicylate overdose can cause metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis, with adults typically experiencing an alkalosis with a high pH, while children under 4-years-old may experience an acidosis. Hypokalaemia is more common than hyperkalaemia in patients following a salicylate overdose. Overdosing on SSRI medication, such as fluoxetine, rarely causes significant issues unless taken in extremely high doses, which may lead to tachycardia and prolonged QT interval. Zopiclone can cause excessive drowsiness, but respiratory depression is rare. Digoxin therapy overdose usually results in rhythm disturbance, which may be worsened by hypokalaemia.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential effects of overdosing on various medications and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As an Emergency department doctor, a 24-year-old man comes to the department with...

    Correct

    • As an Emergency department doctor, a 24-year-old man comes to the department with a complaint of blood in his urine that started yesterday. He is typically healthy but recently had a throat infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows: Haemoglobin +++, Urobilinogen Negative, Bilirubin Negative, Protein +, Glucose Negative, Nitrites Negative, Leucocytes Negative, and Ketones +. What could be the probable reason for these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic Syndrome and its Underlying Conditions

      Nephritic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by blood in the urine, which is likely to be of renal origin. However, it is not a diagnosis in itself and can occur with various underlying renal conditions. The main differential diagnosis for nephritic syndrome is renal stones, which are usually associated with pain.

      The underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome include many types of glomerulonephritis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Goodpasture syndrome, infective endocarditis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or lupus nephritis, vasculitis, and viral diseases such as hepatitis B or C, EBV, measles, and mumps.

      When diagnosing nephritic syndrome, urinalysis is crucial as it will show abundant haemoglobin. However, it is important to note that this can sometimes lead to false positives for bilirubin and urobilinogen, which are related substances. the underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
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