00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is admitted with a swollen left calf. Investigations confirm a deep vein thrombosis and he is started on treatment dose dalteparin. As he has a significant degree of renal impairment it is decided to monitor his response to dalteparin. What is the most suitable blood test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III levels

      Correct Answer: Anti-Factor Xa levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a small amount of dark brown vaginal bleeding at 39+2 weeks’ gestation. On admission, a speculum examination showed some old blood in the vagina, but no evidence of active bleeding. The cervix was long, and the os closed. Patient observations were stable, and an ultrasound scan was unremarkable. Two hours later, the emergency alarm is heard. The patient is in distress with extreme abdominal pain and fresh vaginal bleeding. The CTG records a prolonged deceleration of four minutes.
      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Emergency Caesarean Section for Placental Abruption: Management and Considerations

      Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In cases where the abruption is severe and associated with fetal distress, an emergency Caesarean section is often the only option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption.

      In this scenario, the patient presents with placental abruption and has suddenly deteriorated with severe pain and fresh red bleeding, indicating a further significant abruption of the placenta associated with bleeding. This has caused an abrupt cessation or disruption in the blood flow to the fetus, leading to a prolonged deceleration. A prolonged deceleration of > 3 minutes or acute bradycardia are indications for immediate delivery of the baby.

      As the scenario does not tell us whether the patient is in labor and fully dilated, an instrumental delivery cannot be performed. Additionally, there is no time to assess bleeding by vaginal delivery; the patient should be immediately transferred to theatre where an examination can be performed before proceeding with a Caesarean section.

      Before going to theatre for an emergency Caesarean section, it is necessary to offer appropriate resuscitation to the mother. Intravenous fluids, a full blood count, oxygen as required, and crossmatch of two units of blood to be used if required is necessary. Intravenous fluid resuscitation can also take place in theatre, managed accordingly by the anaesthetist.

      In conclusion, an emergency Caesarean section is the preferred option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption in cases of severe placental abruption associated with fetal distress. Prompt management and appropriate resuscitation are crucial to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old patient is brought into the emergency department by her friends at...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient is brought into the emergency department by her friends at 2 am, following a night out. Her friends are worried as she is sweating excessively and is extremely disoriented. They also mention she has become jerky and rigid over the last 30 minutes. Upon further questioning, they reveal that the patient has used recreational drugs.

      During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 38.4ºC and she remains disorientated. Her medical history includes depression and hypothyroidism, for which she takes fluoxetine and levothyroxine. Based on the symptoms, what is the likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: MDMA

      Explanation:

      The combination of SSRIs and MDMA can lead to a higher risk of serotonin syndrome. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing serotonin syndrome due to their prescription of fluoxetine and symptoms of hyperthermia, confusion, muscle rigidity, and myoclonus. MDMA is an illegal substance that is known to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it the correct answer. Cannabis, cocaine, heroin, and paracetamol are all incorrect as they do not increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. Other drugs that do increase the risk include St. Johns Wort, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tramadol, SSRIs, and amphetamines.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman who was diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) five years ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who was diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) five years ago is seeking advice on the frequency of colonoscopy in UC. Her UC is currently under control, and she has no family history of malignancy. She had a routine colonoscopy about 18 months ago. When should she schedule her next colonoscopy appointment?

      Your Answer: In two years' time

      Correct Answer: In four years' time

      Explanation:

      Colonoscopy Surveillance for Patients with Ulcerative Colitis

      Explanation:
      Patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) are at an increased risk for colonic malignancy. The frequency of colonoscopy surveillance depends on the activity of the disease and the family history of colorectal cancer. Patients with well-controlled UC are considered to be at low risk and should have a surveillance colonoscopy every five years, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Patients at intermediate risk should have a surveillance colonoscopy every three years, while patients in the high-risk group should have annual screening. It is important to ask about the patient’s family history of colorectal cancer to determine their risk stratification. Colonoscopy is not only indicated if the patient’s symptoms deteriorate, but also for routine surveillance to detect any potential malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about the potential risks of ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is concerned and wants advice on whether she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman regarding the use of ondansetron during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is some evidence of an increased rate of developing HELLP syndrome in the 3rd trimester

      Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is currently no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE antenatal care guidance, published in August 2021, acknowledges the increased risk of cleft lip or palate with ondansetron use, but notes that there is conflicting evidence regarding the drug’s potential to cause heart problems in babies. It is important to note that the risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies is not supported by evidence, and there is no established risk of severe congenital heart defects in newborns associated with ondansetron use.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The arterial blood gas results are as follows: pH of 7.6 (normal range:...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood gas results are as follows: pH of 7.6 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pO2 of 13.3 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa), pCO2 of 5.6 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa), HCO3 of 32 mmol/l (normal range: 24-30 mmol/l), and SaO2 of 97% on room air. Based on these results, which clinical scenario is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acid-Base Imbalances in Various Medical Conditions

      Pyloric Stenosis:
      Pyloric stenosis causes projectile vomiting due to the inability of stomach contents to pass into the duodenum, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory compensation may occur, leading to a raised pCO2.

      Septic Shock:
      Septic shock leads to metabolic acidosis due to poor tissue perfusion and increased anaerobic respiration. Respiratory compensation may occur, leading to an increased respiratory rate.

      Pneumothorax:
      A pneumothorax typically causes respiratory alkalosis, but if associated with fractured ribs, respiratory acidosis may occur. In the acute setting, there is unlikely to be any metabolic compensation.

      Hyperventilation:
      Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis as the patient exhales excess CO2. There is unlikely to be metabolic compensation in the acute setting.

      Bowel Ischaemia:
      Bowel ischaemia leads to metabolic acidosis due to anaerobic respiration in the affected tissue. Respiratory compensation may occur, leading to an increased respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total knee replacement two days ago. The patient reports experiencing weakness in the movement of their right foot since the surgery. They are curious if the spinal anesthesia administered during the procedure could be the cause, despite no complications being reported at the time. Apart from this issue, the patient is in good health. Upon clinical examination, you observe a suspected foot drop as there is a weakened dorsiflexion of the right foot. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Spinal abscess

      Correct Answer: Poor intra-operative positioning and padding

      Explanation:

      Post-Operative Foot Drop Caused by Prolonged Pressure on Common Peroneal Nerve

      Prolonged pressure on the common peroneal nerve during anaesthesia is a well-known cause of post-operative foot drop. It is important to ensure that patients are adequately padded on the fibula head when positioning them under general or regional anaesthesia for extended periods of time. While a central neurological cause is unlikely to cause such well-defined peripheral nerve lesions, it is essential to take precautions to prevent nerve damage during surgery.

      Treatment for post-operative foot drop is typically conservative, and the transient neuropraxia can often pass. However, in some cases, this may result in permanent injury. It is crucial to monitor patients closely after surgery and provide appropriate care to prevent further complications. By taking preventative measures and providing proper post-operative care, healthcare professionals can help reduce the risk of post-operative foot drop and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55 year old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms and signs...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms and signs that indicate rheumatoid arthritis. She has been experiencing bilateral swelling of her metacarpophalangeal joints, early morning stiffness lasting for about an hour, and a raised nodule on the extensor surface of her left forearm for the past 2 months. Her rheumatoid factor test came back positive. What is the recommended initial treatment for her arthritis?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate plus a short course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      For individuals with recently diagnosed active rheumatoid arthritis, NICE advises initiating disease-modifying treatment as soon as feasible, utilizing methotrexate (or sulfasalazine or leflunomide) and oral steroids. During flare-ups, steroids (either oral or intra-articular) may be administered to alleviate symptoms, and patients may also be given paracetamol for pain management.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with an arm fracture and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with an arm fracture and bruising around her neck and on her abdomen. She is 12 weeks pregnant. While assessing her, you suspect that she may be a victim of domestic abuse. You enquire about this, but she quickly denies any issues at home with her husband, with whom she lives in a rural area. She instead tells you that these injuries were a result of her falling over at work.
      Which of the following factors would make her more likely to be a victim of domestic violence?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence Domestic Violence: A Case Study

      Domestic violence is a serious issue that affects many women worldwide. In this case study, we will explore the various factors that can influence domestic violence.

      Pregnancy is a significant risk factor for domestic violence, especially when unplanned. It is crucial to screen for domestic violence during antenatal visits as it can increase the risk of miscarriage, infection, or injury to the unborn child.

      Women aged 20-24 years are more likely to be victims of domestic violence than those aged over 25, according to the Office for National Statistics. However, this patient’s age is less likely to be a factor.

      Unemployment is another factor that can increase the risk of domestic violence. Women who are unemployed are almost twice as likely to experience domestic violence than those who are employed. However, this patient has not specified that she is unemployed and is not the most likely option here.

      Contrary to popular belief, women living in urban areas are more likely to experience domestic violence than those who live in rural areas, according to the Office for National Statistics.

      Finally, women who are married are less likely to be victims of domestic violence than those who are divorced or separated.

      In conclusion, domestic violence is a complex issue that can be influenced by various factors. It is essential to identify and address these factors to prevent and reduce the incidence of domestic violence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She is currently in the second week of the packet and had unprotected sex the previous night. The patient is calling early in the morning, her usual pill-taking time, but has not taken today's pill yet due to uncertainty about what to do. What guidance should be provided to this patient regarding the missed pill?

      Your Answer: Take emergency contraception and continue with today's pill only

      Correct Answer: Take two pills today, no further precautions needed

      Explanation:

      If one COCP pill is missed, the individual should take the missed pill as soon as possible, but no further action is necessary. They should also take the next pill at the usual time, even if that means taking two pills in one day. Emergency contraception is not required in this situation, as only one pill was missed. However, if two or more pills are missed in week 3 of a packet, it is recommended to omit the pill-free interval and use barrier contraception for 7 days.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Passmed