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  • Question 1 - As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a 65-year-old woman who underwent an endometrial biopsy due to postmenopausal bleeding. Can you identify which type of ovarian tumor is linked to the development of endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Fibromas

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cell tumours

      Explanation:

      The development of atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium is caused by excessive stimulation of the endometrium by oestrogen, and it is classified as a premalignant condition. Hormone production is increased in sex cord stromal tumours such as Thecomas, Fibromas, Sertoli cell and granulosa cell tumours, which are associated with this condition.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination

      Explanation:

      It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.

      In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear at her local clinic as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear at her local clinic as part of the UK cervical screening programme. Her result comes back as an 'inadequate sample'. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test within 1 month

      Correct Answer: Repeat the test within 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test performed as part of the NHS cervical screening programme is inadequate, it should be first tested for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and then repeated within 3 months. Colposcopy should only be performed if the second sample also returns as inadequate. Returning the patient to normal recall would result in a delay of 3 years for a repeat smear test, which is not recommended as it could lead to a missed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test in 1 month is too soon, while repeating it in 6 months is not in line with current guidelines.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a ring pessary

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe menstrual pain and pain during intercourse. She reports that the symptoms have been progressively worsening. An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a 4-cm cyst in the right ovary. The serum CA-125 level is 225 (0–34 iu/ml). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cell tumour of the right ovary

      Correct Answer: Ectopic endometrial tissue

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from endometriosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus. This condition can cause subfertility, chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, and dyspareunia. It may also lead to an increase in serum CA-125 levels and the development of ovarian deposits known as chocolate cysts. Acute appendicitis and ovarian neoplasms are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms, while mittelschmerz only causes mid-cycle pain and does not explain the elevated CA-125 levels. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary typically secrete inhibin and estrogen, making endometriosis a more likely diagnosis. Symptoms of ovarian cancer are often vague and include abdominal discomfort, bloating, back and pelvic pain, irregular menstruation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and weight loss. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include not having children, early first menstruation and last menopause, hormone replacement therapy, endometriosis, and the BRCA genes. In this age group, germ cell tumors are the most likely ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test as part of the UK...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test as part of the UK cervical cancer screening programme. Her results come back as hrHPV positive. Upon cytological examination, normal cells are observed. Following guidelines, the cervical smear test is repeated after 12 months, which still shows hrHPV positivity. Cytology is repeated, and once again, normal cells are observed. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If the first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for hrHPV, the next step is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months) for cervical cancer screening.

      As part of the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical smear tests are initially tested for high-risk HPV (hrHPV). If the test is positive for hrHPV, cytology is performed. If the cytology shows normal cells, the cervical smear test is repeated after 12 months. In cases where the repeat test is still positive for hrHPV but cytology is normal, as in this scenario, the patient should have another repeat test after a further 12 months. Therefore, repeating the test in 12 months is the appropriate course of action.

      Colposcopy is not necessary in this case as the cytology showed normal cells. Returning the patient to routine recall is also not appropriate as it would result in a repeat smear in 3 years. Instead, the patient requires a repeat smear in 12 months due to the positive hrHPV result. Repeating the test in 3 or 6 months is too soon and therefore not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started taking the progesterone-only pill on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had unprotected sex with a new partner 3 days later. She is concerned about the lack of barrier contraception used during the encounter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill requires 48 hours to become effective, except when started on or before day 5 of the menstrual cycle. During this time, additional barrier methods of contraception should be used. Since the patient is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle, it will take 48 hours for the POP to become effective. Therefore, having unprotected sex on day 14 of her menstrual cycle would be considered safe, and emergency contraception is not necessary.

      The intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected sex, but it is not necessary in this case since the POP has become effective. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception and is not recommended for this patient. Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, she is stable and has a temperature of 37.8 °C. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Urinalysis reveals the presence of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC), but no nitrites. What is the most suitable subsequent test?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG))

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age requires a thorough diagnostic workup to rule out gynaecological emergencies such as ectopic pregnancy. The following diagnostic tests should be considered:

      1. Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG)): This test should be the first step in the diagnostic workup to rule out ectopic pregnancy. A positive result requires urgent referral to the gynaecological team.

      2. Full blood count: This test may indicate an ongoing infective process or other pathology, but a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.

      3. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis: Imaging may be useful in determining the cause of the pain, but a pregnancy test should be done first before considering imaging studies.

      4. Urine culture and sensitivity: This test may be useful if a urinary tract infection and possible pyelonephritis are considered, but an ectopic pregnancy has to be ruled out first.

      5. Erect chest X-ray: This test can show free air under the diaphragm, indicating a ruptured viscus and a surgical emergency. However, a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.

      In conclusion, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing age, with a pregnancy test being the first step to rule out gynaecological emergencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had her last menstrual period at the age of 48 and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since then. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. She is currently taking a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole. She used to take the combined oral contraceptive pill for 20 years but did not undergo hormone replacement therapy. The patient has never been pregnant and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. What is the most significant risk factor for her possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nulliparity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is more likely to occur in women who have never given birth. One of the warning signs of endometrial cancer is bleeding after menopause. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a known risk factor for endometrial cancer, but conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and polycystic ovary syndrome are. While late menopause can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this patient experienced menopause at around age 50, which is slightly earlier than average. Smoking is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer, but it is associated with an increased risk of other types of cancer such as cervical, vulval, and breast cancer. On the other hand, taking the combined oral contraceptive pill can lower the risk of endometrial cancer, but it may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - Sophie is a 32-year-old mother of two, who is uncertain if she wants...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 32-year-old mother of two, who is uncertain if she wants to have more children. She comes to you with a history of not having a period for the past 9 months. Sophie had regular menstrual cycles for 28 months after giving birth to her last child. She has never used any hormonal birth control or undergone any surgeries. Upon examination, her abdomen and gynecological areas appear normal, and there are no signs of hyperandrogenism. A pregnancy test confirms that she is not pregnant.

      Lab results show a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and estradiol levels, while prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and T4 levels are normal. A 10-day progestin challenge fails to induce a withdrawal bleed.

      What is the underlying cause of Sophie's amenorrhea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Caroline’s case of secondary amenorrhoea suggests a hypothalamic cause, as indicated by low levels of gonadotrophins (FSH and LH) and oestradiol. This is different from pituitary adenoma, which often presents with panhypopituitarism and normal prolactin levels, and premature ovarian failure, which is diagnosed in women under 40 with increased FSH levels and menopausal-like symptoms. PCOS is also unlikely as there is no hyperandrogenism or other symptoms present. Hypothalamic dysfunction can be caused by excessive exercise, stress, or dieting, which should be explored in the patient’s history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more than two years. She is worried that she may not be ovulating despite having a regular menstrual cycle lasting 30 days. She is not using any form of birth control and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the most effective method to detect ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone level

      Explanation:

      The most reliable way to confirm ovulation is through the Day 21 progesterone test. This test measures the peak level of progesterone in the serum, which occurs 7 days after ovulation. While the length of the follicular phase can vary, the luteal phase always lasts for 14 days. Therefore, if a woman has a 35-day cycle, she can expect to ovulate on Day 21 and her progesterone level will peak on Day 28. To determine when to take the test, subtract 7 days from the expected start of the next period (Day 21 for a 28-day cycle and Day 28 for a 35-day cycle). Basal body temperature charts and cervical mucous thickness are not reliable predictors of ovulation. Gonadotropins may be used to assess ovarian function in women with irregular menstrual cycles.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has multiple fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and has already completed a 3-month trial of tranexamic acid, which did not improve her symptoms. On examination, you notice that she appears pale and her uterus is equivalent to 16 weeks of pregnancy. The patient expresses her frustration and desire for a definitive treatment. A negative urinary pregnancy test is obtained. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's menorrhagia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Hysterectomy is the most effective treatment for menorrhagia caused by large fibroids, which are benign tumors of smooth muscle that can grow in response to hormones. Risk factors for fibroids include obesity, early menarche, African-American origin, and a family history of fibroids. Symptoms of fibroids include heavy periods, anemia, abdominal discomfort, and pressure symptoms. Diagnosis is made through pelvic ultrasound. Medical management with NSAIDs or tranexamic acid can be tried first, but if it fails, surgical management is necessary. Uterine-sparing surgeries like myomectomy or uterine artery embolization can be considered for women who want to preserve their fertility, but hysterectomy is the definitive method of treatment for women who have completed their family or have severe symptoms. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is not recommended for women with large fibroids causing uterine distortion. Mefenamic acid is less effective than tranexamic acid for fibroid-related menorrhagia. Myomectomy is not a definitive method of management as fibroids can recur. Uterine artery embolization is an option for women who want to preserve their uterus but not their fertility, but its effect on fertility and pregnancy is not well established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 21-year-old woman is experiencing amenorrhoea and has been referred for further investigation...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is experiencing amenorrhoea and has been referred for further investigation by her general practitioner. Her serum levels show a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) of 4 u/l (women: 2-8 u/l), luteinising hormone (LH) of 12 u/l (women: 2-10 u/l), and testosterone of 3.5 mmol/l (adult women: 0.5-2.5 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes and Symptoms

      Amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods, can be caused by a variety of factors. One common cause is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is characterized by hyperandrogenisation and chronic anovulation. PCOS is diagnosed when a patient has at least two of the following: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, excess androgen activity, and polycystic ovaries. Elevated plasma LH is a relatively specific sign of PCOS, which can lead to symptoms such as hirsutism, acne, menstrual disturbances, and obesity.

      Other common causes of amenorrhoea include pregnancy, Turner syndrome, primary ovarian failure, anorexia nervosa, and hyperprolactinaemia. Pregnancy is a cause of amenorrhoea that should not be ignored, but elevated testosterone levels are not consistent with this. Turner syndrome is due to a karyotypic abnormality (XO), which results in primary ovarian failure. Anorexia nervosa often results in hypopituitarism, which causes amenorrhoea, but FSH and LH levels would be low and testosterone normal. Hyperprolactinaemia inhibits gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), causing lowered LH and FSH levels, but testosterone levels are unlikely to change in women.

      In summary, understanding the causes and symptoms of amenorrhoea can help with diagnosis and treatment. PCOS, pregnancy, Turner syndrome, primary ovarian failure, anorexia nervosa, and hyperprolactinaemia are all potential causes to consider.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
      What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene citrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following an uncomplicated delivery. The medical team discusses contraception options with her before she leaves. The patient had previously been taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and wishes to resume this medication.

      The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19 kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.

      What is the appropriate time frame for the patient to safely restart her medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can restart after 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient should not restart the COCP within the first 21 days after giving birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. However, since the patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risk factors for thromboembolic disease, she can safely restart the pill at 3 weeks postpartum. Restarting at any other time before the 21-day mark is not recommended.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
      Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment

      Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.

      Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.

      gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.

      Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.

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  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
      She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients

      Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically occur one week before her period and subside a few days after. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP and reports that her symptoms have not improved during her menstrual cycle. She is feeling like a bad mother as she is losing her patience with her children easily when symptomatic and is seeking further treatment options. What is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) can be helped by SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase. If a patient’s symptoms are significantly impacting their day-to-day life and have not improved with first-line treatment using a combined oral contraceptive pill, antidepressant treatment with SSRIs is recommended. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and the copper coil are not indicated for the management of PMS.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
      Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:

      Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
      Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.

      2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
      Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.

      3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
      Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.

      4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
      Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.

      5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
      Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus.

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  • Question 23 - You are a general practitioner and a 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • You are a general practitioner and a 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of PV bleeding for the past 2 months. She underwent menopause at the age of 50, has a BMI of 33 kg/m², and consumes 20 units of alcohol per week. She has had only one sexual partner throughout her life and does not experience pain during intercourse or post-coital bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

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  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred by her general practitioner. She describes a dragging sensation and the feeling of a lump in her vagina. In addition, she also reports several embarrassing incidences of incontinence following coughing and sneezing. The clinician performs an examination which reveals a cystourethrocele. Both medical and surgical treatment options are discussed with the patient.
      Which of the following surgical procedures could be treatment options for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cystourethrocele: Conservative and Surgical Approaches

      Cystourethrocele, the descent of the anterior part of the vagina attached to the urethra and the base of the bladder, can cause disruption of the continence mechanism and stress incontinence. Conservative measures such as pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, and oestrogen therapy may be used prior to surgery or as a therapeutic test to improve symptoms. However, the surgical treatment of choice is an anterior repair, also known as anterior colporrhaphy, which involves making a midline incision through the vaginal skin, reflecting the underlying bladder off the vaginal mucosa, and placing lateral supporting sutures into the fascia to elevate the bladder and bladder neck. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy is a procedure to surgically correct lacerations or tears in the vagina and perineum. Sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation are not relevant for this patient. Approximately 50% of patients may experience post-operative urinary retention following anterior colporrhaphy.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain. The pain is sharp and constant, with a rating of 10/10, and is spreading to her lower back. She is unable to lie still due to the pain. She is experiencing nausea but has not vomited. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago and was normal, and her menstrual cycle is always regular.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, and temperature is 37.3 °C. There is tenderness in the periumbilical and right lower quadrant upon palpation. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a significant amount of free pelvic fluid.

      What is the most likely organ or structure that is injured in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Sudden Pelvic Pain: A Differential Diagnosis

      Sudden pelvic pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest ovarian torsion, a condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its blood supply, causing ischemia and infarction. The resulting pain is severe, sharp, and sudden, often accompanied by tenderness and internal bleeding. However, other possible causes of sudden pelvic pain should also be considered.

      Rectal diseases or trauma are unlikely to explain the patient’s current presentation. Similarly, while appendicitis can cause abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and anorexia, the pattern of pain is different, starting as dull pain around the belly button and becoming sharp and localized to the right lower quadrant over time. Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant, is often positive in appendicitis.

      A ureteral stone can also cause sudden-onset pelvic and flank pain, but it is not associated with pelvic bleeding. Urinary tract stones typically cause colicky pain, which comes and goes in waves, rather than the unrelenting pain described by the patient.

      Finally, a ruptured Fallopian tube can be a complication of an ectopic pregnancy, but the patient’s recent normal menstrual periods make this diagnosis less likely. In ectopic tubal pregnancy, the patient usually complains of amenorrhea, abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic pain of several days to weeks’ duration.

      In summary, while ovarian torsion is a possible cause of the patient’s sudden pelvic pain, other conditions should also be considered and ruled out through further evaluation and testing.

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  • Question 26 - At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history...

    Incorrect

    • At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history from a 32-year-old patient to determine the appropriate day for conducting a mid-luteal progesterone level test. The patient reports having a consistent 28-day cycle. What day would you recommend for the mid-luteal progesterone level test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Day 28

      Explanation:

      The appropriate time to test progesterone levels is on Day 28, which is 7 days before the end of a woman’s regular menstrual cycle. However, for individuals with a different cycle length, the timing may vary. It is recommended to take into account the individual’s menstrual cycle history to determine the appropriate time for testing. According to NICE guidelines, women with regular menstrual cycles should be informed that they are likely ovulating, but a mid-luteal serum progesterone level should be checked to confirm.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and significant weight loss over...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and significant weight loss over the past two months. She visits her GP, who discovers that two of her first-degree relatives died from cancer after asking further questions. During the physical examination, the GP observes an abdominal mass and distension. The GP is concerned about the symptoms and orders a CA-125 test, which returns as elevated. What gene mutation carries the greatest risk for the condition indicated by high CA-125 levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BRCA1

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and an elevated level of CA-125, it is likely that she has ovarian cancer. Additionally, her family history of cancer in first-degree relatives and early onset cancer suggest the possibility of an inherited cancer-related gene. One such gene is BRCA1, which increases the risk of ovarian and breast cancer in those who have inherited a mutated copy. Other tumour suppressor genes, such as WT1 for Wilm’s tumour, Rb for retinoblastoma, and c-Myc for Burkitt lymphoma, confer a higher risk for other types of cancer.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the outpatients' department for evaluation. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the outpatients' department for evaluation. She has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and has been trying to conceive for the past eight months without success. During the examination, she is found to be hirsute. Her height and weight measurements reveal a BMI of 24 kg/m². What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene is the correct answer for the first-line treatment of infertility in PCOS. This patient is experiencing infertility, which is a common consequence of polycystic ovarian syndrome. Clomiphene is typically used as the initial treatment for fertility issues in PCOS patients, as it has a lower risk of inducing ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other treatments like gonadotropins. Goserelin, on the other hand, is incorrect as it is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist used for hormone-sensitive prostate cancer and may not be suitable for PCOS patients. In vitro fertilisation (IVF) is also incorrect as it is typically not offered until after two years of trying to conceive, and medical optimisation with agents like Clomiphene is preferred before referral for IVF. Metformin may have a role in promoting fertility in obese PCOS patients, but for this patient with a normal BMI, Clomiphene is a better option than metformin as monotherapy.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 80 hours ago. She is currently on day 20 of her menstrual cycle. The doctor discovers that the patient was previously prescribed ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) for a similar situation just 10 days ago. What would be an appropriate emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) pill

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (3/9) 33%
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