00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A middle-aged homeless man in his early 50s is brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged homeless man in his early 50s is brought to the emergency department with a six hour history of profuse vomiting. He complains of nausea and headache.

      The history available is sketchy. He is of no fixed abode and denies having any previous medical problems. He appears unkempt and is confused - oriented to person but not time or place. He is afebrile. His breath smells of ketones.

      Twelve hours after admission his condition deteriorates. He complains of blurred vision and his pupils are fixed and dilated; his respiratory rate increases sharply over the next few minutes and he becomes unconscious.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 138 g/L (130-180)
      WCC 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 401 ×109/L (150-400)
      Plasma sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
      Plasma potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Plasma urea 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Plasma creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      Plasma chloride 100 mmol/L (95-107)
      Plasma bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (20-28)
      Plasma glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      Plasma lactate 4.1 mmol/L (0.6-1.7)
      PaO2 12 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 4.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      pH 7.22 (7.36-7.44)
      Urine microscopy Crystals seen

      What is the calculated anion gap in this case?

      Your Answer: 28 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Methanol Toxicity: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Methanol toxicity is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion. Early signs of toxicity are caused by methanol, while later signs are due to its metabolite, formic acid. The laboratory data shows a high gap metabolic acidosis, which can be diagnosed early by measuring the serum methanol and serum formate levels. Anion gap, which is the difference between positively charged ions and negatively charged ions in the blood, is elevated but lactate levels do not account for it.

      Treatment for methanol toxicity involves eliminating formic acid through alkaline diuresis or haemodialysis, correcting acidosis with IV bicarbonate, and preventing the metabolism of methanol to formic acid by administering IV ethanol. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications such as metabolic acidosis and retinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old gardener experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness and right-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old gardener experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness and right-sided chest pain while tending to the plants. He is quickly taken to the hospital, but his condition deteriorates during the examination conducted by a junior doctor.

      The doctor notes a deviated trachea to the left and very faint breath sounds over the right lung. However, with the assistance of a senior doctor, the patient's condition improves rapidly.

      What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Recognizing and Treating Tension Pneumothorax

      Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing in a previously healthy young man may indicate the presence of pneumothorax. It is important to be able to recognize and treat a tension pneumothorax if it occurs during a physical examination. There are many stories of patients developing tension pneumothorax while in the hospital, so it is crucial to be prepared.

      The treatment for tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis in the second intercostal space. It is not necessary to obtain a chest X-ray before performing this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to complain of abdominal pain and light-headedness. On assessment, she has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, a heart rate of 120 bpm, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 98% and a temperature of 36.7 °C. She appears drowsy and pale, and the radial pulse is difficult to detect. Her abdomen appears rigid and is painful to palpate, and a bleed is suspected.
      What type of shock is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemic

      Explanation:

      Types of Shock and their Causes

      Shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body’s organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. There are different types of shock, each with its own causes and symptoms.

      Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume, usually more than 20%. This can occur due to trauma, surgery, or internal bleeding. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. Treatment involves urgent fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention.

      Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to a substance, such as medication, food, or insect venom. Symptoms include swelling of the face and throat, hives, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves administering epinephrine and seeking emergency medical care.

      Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. This can occur after a heart attack or other cardiac event. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cardiac issue and providing supportive care.

      Neurogenic shock occurs due to damage to the central nervous system or spinal cord. Symptoms include low blood pressure, slow heartbeat, and warm skin. Treatment involves stabilizing the spine and providing supportive care.

      Septic shock occurs as a result of a severe infection that spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include fever, low blood pressure, and confusion. Treatment involves administering antibiotics and providing supportive care.

      In conclusion, recognizing the type of shock a patient is experiencing is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being referred by her GP due to a two-day history of increasing pain and swelling in the right groin area. Upon examination, there is a firm and red swelling that extends from the pubic tubercle downwards and outwards. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hernias and their Characteristics

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of hernia in adults, while femoral hernias are more commonly seen in elderly females. The femoral canal is formed by several ligaments and opens at the femoral ring, which is located inferolaterally to the pubic tubercle. On the other hand, inguinal hernias open at the superficial inguinal ring, which is found superolateral to the pubic tubercle. Therefore, options A and D are incorrect.

      Incisional hernias occur at a previous site of surgery where the underlying tissue has been weakened. This type of hernia can occur anywhere on the abdomen where surgery has taken place. However, in the absence of any previous surgery or scar, it is not the correct answer.

      Spigelian hernias occur in the abdominal wall within the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally. They do not present with a groin swelling.

      In summary, there are different types of hernias, each with its own characteristics and location. It is important to correctly identify the type of hernia to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis B. His blood tests show positive results for hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies. However, he tests negative for IgM anti Hbc and anti-hepatitis B surface antibody. What is the man's current disease status?

      Your Answer: Chronically infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.

      Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.

      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: IV doxapram infusion

      Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients

      When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.

      Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have...

    Correct

    • You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.

      The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.

      What is the most important first drug intervention?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought to the Emergency department within an hour. Upon arrival, he is conscious and given a sublingual nitrate which provides some relief. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/85 mmHg. An ECG reveals 3 mm of ST segment elevation in leads II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Admission with initiation of aspirin, clopidogrel, thrombolysis, and low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Admission for cardiac catheterisation and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Initial and Long-Term Treatment for Inferolateral ST-Elevation MI

      The patient’s history and ECG findings suggest that they are experiencing an Inferolateral ST-elevation MI. The best initial treatment for this condition would be percutaneous coronary intervention. It is likely that the patient would have already received aspirin in the ambulance.

      For long-term treatment, the patient will require dual antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, a statin, a beta blocker, and an ACE-inhibitor. These medications will help manage the patient’s condition and prevent future cardiac events.

      It is important to follow the NICE guideline for Acute Coronary Syndrome to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a sudden onset of severe chest pain that spreads to his back, causing him to lose consciousness within minutes. He has a medical history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test showed no signs of cardiac disease. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tear in the aortic intima

      Explanation:

      Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain

      The given history suggests that aortic dissection is the most probable cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possible cause, it is not the most likely in this scenario.

      References such as BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine support the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this condition as a potential cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain and seek immediate medical attention. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old college student has ingested a mixture of over 100 paracetamol tablets...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old college student has ingested a mixture of over 100 paracetamol tablets and half a bottle of vodka after a disagreement with her partner. She has since vomited and has been rushed to the Emergency department in the early hours. It has been approximately six hours since she took the tablets. Her paracetamol level is 100 mg/L, which is above the normogram treatment line. Her test results show normal levels for sodium, potassium, glucose, INR, albumin, bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase. Her urea and creatinine levels are slightly elevated. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: IV N acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose

      When a patient takes a significant overdose of paracetamol, it is important to seek treatment immediately. If the overdose is above the treatment line at six hours, the patient will require N-acetylcysteine. Even if there is uncertainty about the timing of the overdose, it is recommended to administer the antidote. Liver function tests may not show abnormalities for up to 48 hours, but the international normalised ratio (INR) is the most sensitive marker for liver damage. If the INR is normal at 48 hours, the patient may be discharged. It is crucial to seek medical attention promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being found unconscious on the street. He appears disheveled and smells strongly of alcohol. Despite attempts to gather information about his medical history, none is available. Upon examination, his temperature is 35°C, blood pressure is 106/72 mmHg, and pulse is 52 bpm. He does not respond to commands, but when a venflon is attempted, he tries to grab the arm of the medical professional and makes incomprehensible sounds while keeping his eyes closed. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale: A Simple and Reliable Tool for Assessing Brain Injury

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of brain injury. It is simple to use, has a high degree of interobserver reliability, and is strongly correlated with patient outcomes. The GCS consists of three components: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Motor Response (M). Each component is scored on a scale of 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating better function.

      The Eye Opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to verbal or painful stimuli. The Verbal Response component evaluates the patient’s ability to speak and communicate appropriately. The Motor Response component assesses the patient’s ability to move their limbs in response to verbal or painful stimuli.

      The GCS score is calculated by adding the scores for each component.

      When providers use the GCS in connection with a head injury, they tend to apply scoring ranges to describe how severe the injury is. The ranges are:

      • 13 to 15: Mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI). Also known as a concussion.
      • 9 to 12: Moderate TBI.
      • 3 to 8: Severe TBI.

      The GCS score is an important prognostic indicator, as it can help predict patient outcomes and guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has a history of drinking a bottle of vodka daily and has been experiencing persistent vomiting for the past week.

      On examination, her pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 109/70 mmHg. The following blood results are obtained:

      - pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
      - PaO2 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      - PaCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      - Standard bicarbonate 10 mmol/L (20-28)
      - Base excess −8 mmol/L (+/−2)
      - Lactate 1.2 mmol/L (0.5-2.2)
      - Sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 72 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Urine analysis Ketones +++

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV thiamine followed by 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Starvation Ketosis in Alcoholic Abuse Patients

      Alcoholic abuse patients with starvation ketosis exhibit low pH, low bicarbonate, low base excess, and compensatory low PaCO2. The appropriate treatment for this condition is intravenous (IV) dextrose. However, it is important to note that glucose can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain’s ability to process information. Therefore, before administering IV dextrose, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require initial treatment with IV Pabrinex.

      In summary, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications. The treatment involves administering IV Pabrinex before IV dextrose to avoid triggering Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This approach can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      75.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of severe weakness, obtundation, and poor oral intake.

      One month ago, CT of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. He underwent cranial irradiation and received dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily.

      On examination he is unwell and disoriented. Temperature is 36.6°C, pulse is 100/min, respiratory rate is 28/min and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg supine. Chest examination and heart examination are normal. There is lower abdominal tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area. Diffuse muscle weakness is noted. No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.

      Investigations reveal:

      White cell count 19.5 ×109/L (4-11)

      Plasma glucose 40 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Urea 25 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 160 µmol/L (60-110)

      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (20-28)

      Urinalysis Glucose +++

      Protein ++

      Moderate bacteria seen

      Cultures of blood and urine are requested and he is treated with an intravenous sliding scale insulin.

      Which of the following IV fluids would you prescribe in conjunction with the insulin sliding scale for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dextrose saline

      Correct Answer: Normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Excessive Hyperglycaemia in a Dehydrated Patient

      This patient is experiencing excessive hyperglycaemia, which is contributing to her symptoms and is related to hyperosmolarity. However, her normal bicarbonate levels suggest that she does not have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS), but rather dehydration. Additionally, her marked hyperglycaemia is likely caused by the dexamethasone she is taking, which is causing insulin resistance.

      To manage her condition, the patient requires IV normal saline to address her dehydration, along with insulin to regulate her blood glucose levels. Once her blood glucose levels have decreased to 10 mmol/L, she can switch to IV dextrose. This approach will help to address her crystalloid requirements and manage her hyperglycaemia effectively.

      In summary, managing excessive hyperglycaemia in a dehydrated patient requires a careful approach that addresses both the underlying cause of the hyperglycaemia and the patient’s hydration status. By providing IV fluids and insulin as needed, healthcare providers can help to regulate the patient’s blood glucose levels and improve their overall condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and malaise. She recently returned from a holiday in southern Spain and has since developed a non-productive cough with chills that have worsened. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes per day but no other medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 40°C, blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, and a pulse of 106 bpm. Chest examination reveals inspiratory crackles at the left base only, with a respiratory rate of 28/min. Baseline investigations show haziness at the left base on CXR, Hb 128 g/L (115-165), WCC 5.5 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60-110), Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Legionnaires disease

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: A Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      This patient’s medical history and symptoms suggest that they have contracted a community-acquired pneumonia. However, despite the obvious infection, their white cell count appears relatively normal, indicating that they may have an atypical pneumonia. Further investigation reveals that the patient recently traveled to Spain and is experiencing hyponatremia, which are both indicative of Legionnaires disease. This disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism and is typically spread through infected water supplies, such as air conditioning systems.

      To diagnose Legionnaires disease, doctors typically look for the presence of urinary antigen before any rise in serum antibody titres. Fortunately, the organism is sensitive to macrolides and ciprofloxacin, which can be used to treat the disease. Overall, it is important for doctors to consider Legionnaire’s disease as a potential cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in patients with a recent history of travel and hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.

      She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.

      On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.

      Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.

      What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous flumazenil 200 mcg then further doses of 100 mcg dependant on response

      Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen

      Explanation:

      The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl and her mother rush to the Emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl and her mother rush to the Emergency department due to the girl's sudden onset of breathlessness and facial puffiness. The girl has a history of eczema and is currently taking oral contraceptives. Despite being well prior to this incident, she is now visibly distressed and experiencing laboured breathing with stridor but no wheezing. What is the most probable reason for her breathlessness?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Noisy Breathing and Atopy in Adolescents

      The presence of noisy breathing in an adolescent may indicate the possibility of stridor, which can be caused by an allergic reaction even in an otherwise healthy individual. The history of atopy, or a tendency to develop allergic reactions, further supports the diagnosis of angio-oedema. The sudden onset of symptoms also adds to the likelihood of this diagnosis.

      While asthma is a possible differential diagnosis, it typically presents with expiratory wheezing. However, if the chest is silent, it may indicate a severe and life-threatening form of asthma. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of noisy breathing and atopy in adolescents to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?

      Your Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain and dyspnoea that has worsened throughout the day. He underwent a right hip replacement and was discharged from BUPA one week ago. On examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 90% on air. There are no specific abnormalities on chest examination, but his chest x-ray shows consolidation at the right base. The ECG is also normal. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: CTPA chest

      Explanation:

      Consider Pulmonary Embolism in Post-Surgery Patients

      A patient who has recently undergone surgery and presents with chest x-ray changes and respiratory symptoms should be evaluated for pulmonary embolism (PE). While infection is a possibility, it is important to consider thromboembolic disease as it can be fatal if left untreated.

      A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may not be sufficient in this context, and a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) would provide a more definitive diagnosis. While raised FDPs/D-dimers can indicate PE, they are not specific and only provide value if they fall within a normal range. Blood cultures for chest infection are unlikely to yield significant results.

      It is crucial to consider the possibility of PE in post-surgery patients to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)

      Explanation:

      Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions

      Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (14/20) 70%
Passmed