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Question 1
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A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film thrombocytopenia
Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
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A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He reports a weaker morning erection and difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual activity. He feels depressed about his symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions that his morning erection is still present but weaker than usual. He also admits to consuming approximately 50 units of alcohol per week and gaining weight recently. Despite his symptoms, he remains hopeful for improvement. What signs would indicate a psychological origin for his condition?
Your Answer: Stress leading to performance anxiety
Explanation:Stress can lead to performance anxiety, which can cause erectile dysfunction. If the cause of erectile dysfunction is organic, there would be a loss of morning erections and difficulty during sexual activity. However, if the cause is psychological, men still get erections in the mornings but not during sexual activity. Previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for prostate cancer can also cause erectile dysfunction. Excessive alcohol consumption, such as drinking 50-60 units per week, can also lead to erectile dysfunction. Symptoms such as feeling tired all the time, low mood, gaining weight, and hopelessness may suggest hypothyroidism, which can also cause erectile dysfunction. Tenderness and enlargement of breast tissue may indicate hyperprolactinaemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma or iatrogenic factors. Checking prolactin levels is necessary to diagnose hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.
If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.
Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.
Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.
Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
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At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit while leaning forward on their hands, grasp a cube and transfer it from hand to hand, babble, but not yet wave goodbye or use their finger and thumb to grasp objects?
Your Answer: 7 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones at 7 Months
At 7 months, babies reach several developmental milestones. They are able to sit without support, which means they can sit up straight and maintain their balance without falling over. They also start to reach for objects with a sweeping motion, using their arms to grab things that catch their attention. Additionally, they begin to imitate speech sounds, such as babbling and making noises with their mouths.
Half of babies at this age can combine syllables into wordlike sounds, which is an important step towards language development. They may start to say simple words like mama or dada and understand the meaning behind them. Finally, many babies begin to crawl or lunge forward, which is a major milestone in their physical development. Overall, 7 months is an exciting time for babies as they continue to grow and develop new skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with metastatic colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospice for end-of-life care. The patient is prescribed ondansetron for management of his nausea symptoms.
Ondansetron acts on which of the following receptors as an antiemetic?Your Answer: Dopamine
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Common Antiemetic Receptors and their Corresponding Medications
Anti-nausea medications work by targeting specific receptors in the body. Here are some common antiemetic receptors and the medications that act on them:
Serotonin: Ondansetron is a medication that binds strongly to the serotonin HT3 receptor. This receptor is present both peripherally on vagal nerve terminals and centrally in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Ondansetron is useful for treating nausea caused by gastrointestinal irritation, GI tumors, intestinal obstruction, and genitourinary or biliary stasis.
Acetylcholine: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter and not a receptor. It acts on muscarinic receptors.
Muscarinic: Hyoscine is an antimuscarinic medication used to treat nausea. Cyclizine and metoclopramide also have antimuscarinic activity.
Dopamine: Metoclopramide, domperidone, and prochlorperazine are dopamine receptor antagonists. Metoclopramide also acts on serotonin antagonists at high doses.
Nicotinic: Ondansetron does not act on nicotinic receptors.
Understanding Antiemetic Receptors and Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
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You are asked to assess a patient in A+E with a burn. He is a 38 year old man who sustained a contact burn to the palm of his left hand and index, middle and ring fingers from a heated metal object an hour ago.
He is haemodynamically stable, and not in significant pain. He a right handed metalworker and is otherwise fit and well without drug allergies. On examination you find the burnt skin on the palmar aspect is white and leathery in appearance. It does not blanch to pressure and the patient can not feel you touching the skin in that area.
This assessment would be compatible with what depth of burn?Your Answer: Full thickness
Explanation:Assessing Burn Depth: Understanding Superficial, Partial Thickness, and Full Thickness Burns
Assessing the depth of a burn is crucial for medical professionals, particularly plastic surgeons and emergency medicine doctors. Burns can vary in depth and may change depending on initial management. Burns are categorized into three types: superficial, partial thickness (including superficial dermal and deep dermal), and full thickness.
Superficial burns are red, moist, and painful with brisk return on blanching. Superficial dermal burns appear drier and whiter than superficial burns, are painful, and have slow return of blood with blanching. Blisters are usually present. Deep dermal burns are mottled red with reduced sensation and do not blanch. Blisters may be present. Full thickness burns are insensate, with a white and leathery/waxy appearance. They do not bleed when pricked with a pin.
While pinprick bleeding can be used to test the depth of burns, the description provided is sufficient to determine the depth of the burn. It is important for medical professionals to understand the characteristics of each type of burn to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?
Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and fresh-frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
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A 26-year-old man presents with complaints of hearing voices named ‘Tommy and Timmy’ who talk to him constantly. Initially, they would inquire about his activities, but lately, they have become derogatory, urging him to end his life and calling him worthless. Sometimes, they converse with each other about him, but he can still hear their unpleasant remarks. He seems frightened and bewildered. He is now convinced that Tommy and Timmy are the spirits of deceased children searching for another body to possess. The man's concerned sibling, who has accompanied him, reports that he has been experiencing these symptoms consistently for the past eight months. He is typically a reserved individual who never gets into trouble or uses drugs.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Schizophrenia: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental health disorder that can be diagnosed if certain criteria are met. These criteria include the presence of two or more symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized/catatonic behavior, or negative symptoms. At least one of the symptoms must be a positive symptom, and they must occur for a period of at least one month (less if treated) and be associated with a decline in functioning for at least six months. Additionally, symptoms cannot occur concurrently with substance use or a mood disorder episode.
In contrast to drug-induced psychosis, this man does not have a history of drug use. Mania, on the other hand, is a mood disorder characterized by predominantly positive feelings such as elation and euphoria. Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when there are both prominent psychotic and affective features, but this man does not have prominent affective symptoms. Delusional disorder, which is characterized by the development of a single or related delusions that are usually persistent and sometimes lifelong, does not include hallucinations.
In this case, the man is experiencing auditory hallucinations and delusions about the ghosts of dead children, which are typical symptoms of schizophrenia. Understanding the criteria for schizophrenia and differentiating it from other mental health disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
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A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra
Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 10
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A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.
Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.
Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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