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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his right hand. He observes that his symptoms are more severe at night, frequently waking him up, and can only be alleviated by hanging his arm outside of the bed. Which nerve compression is likely responsible for this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Compression: Symptoms and Special Tests

      Nerve compression can cause a range of symptoms, from pain and weakness to numbness and tingling. Here are some key things to know about nerve compression and how it affects different nerves in the body.

      The Median Nerve: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel, and compression of this nerve can cause pain, paraesthesiae, and weakness in the distribution of the median nerve. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition that can be caused by pregnancy, diabetes, and other factors. Special tests to detect carpal tunnel syndrome include TINel’s sign, Phalen’s test, and motor assessment.

      The Radial Nerve: Hand and Arm Pain

      Compression of the radial nerve can lead to pain in the back of your hand, near your thumb, and you may not be able to straighten your arm.

      The Lateral Cutaneous Nerve: Reduced Sensation

      Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve can lead to reduced sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      The Ulnar Nerve: Numbness and Tingling

      Compression of the ulnar nerve can lead to numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and half of the fourth finger.

      The Medial Cutaneous Nerve: Elbow and Forearm Pain

      Compression of the medial cutaneous nerve can lead to pain at the elbow and forearm.

      By understanding the symptoms and special tests associated with nerve compression, you can better identify and manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      161
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the right kneecap. The patient reports difficulty bending the knee, and the symptoms are impacting his ability to work.
      Based on the history and examination, the clinician suspects a diagnosis of 'housemaid's knee'.
      'Housemaid's knee' is characterized by inflammation of the:

      Your Answer: Infrapatellar bursa

      Correct Answer: Prepatellar bursa

      Explanation:

      Bursae of the Knee: Locations and Causes of Inflammation

      The knee joint is surrounded by several small fluid-filled sacs called bursae, which act as cushions between bones, tendons, and muscles. However, these bursae can become inflamed due to repetitive stress or injury, causing pain and discomfort. Here are some of the bursae located around the knee joint and their associated conditions:

      1. Prepatellar bursa: This bursa is located between the skin and the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repeated friction, such as in professions that require prolonged kneeling.

      2. Popliteus bursa: This bursa lies between the popliteus tendon and the lateral condyle of the tibia and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury.

      3. Suprapatellar bursa: This bursa can be felt during a knee exam and may become inflamed due to trauma or infection.

      4. Infrapatellar bursa: This bursa is located below the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repetitive kneeling, hence the name clergyman’s knee.

      5. Semimembranous bursa: This bursa is located at the back of the knee and can become inflamed due to injury or underlying conditions such as arthritis.

      In conclusion, understanding the locations and causes of knee bursitis can help individuals take preventive measures and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with...

    Correct

    • A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with a suspected ankle fracture. A fracture of the talus is noted, with the fracture line interrupting the subtalar joint.
      With which of the following bones does the talus articulate at the subtalar joint?

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      Articulations of the Talus Bone in the Foot

      The talus bone is a key component of the foot, connecting to several other bones through various joints. Here are the articulations of the talus bone in the foot:

      Subtalar Joint with Calcaneus
      The subtalar joint connects the talus bone to the calcaneus bone. This joint allows for inversion and eversion of the foot.

      Talocalcaneonavicular Joint with Calcaneus and Navicular
      The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball-and-socket joint that connects the talus bone to the calcaneus and navicular bones. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament completes this joint, connecting the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus to the plantar surface of the navicular bone.

      Medial Malleoli of Tibia
      The talus bone also articulates with the medial malleoli of the tibia bone. This joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot.

      Lateral Malleoli of Fibula
      The lateral malleoli of the fibula bone also articulate with the talus bone. This joint allows for lateral stability of the ankle.

      No Direct Articulation with Lateral Cuneiform
      The talus bone does not directly articulate with the lateral cuneiform bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      9.5
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after he fell off his bike and landed on his arm. Upon examination, his arm is swollen and causing him pain. There are no visible breaks in the skin and no neurovascular deficits were detected. X-rays were taken and the child was diagnosed with an unstable displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia pin fixation and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in Children

      A supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a common injury in children, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture can cause pain, swelling, and resistance to arm examination. It is crucial to check and record the child’s neurovascular status, as a displaced fracture can compress or damage the brachial artery.

      One treatment option for an unstable displaced fracture is reduction under anaesthesia and the insertion of pins to stabilise the fracture. After this procedure, the arm should be maintained in flexion with a collar and cuff, which acts as a natural splint. The degree of flexion should be determined by the presence of the radial pulse, and the child should be carefully observed for 24 hours after the operation to monitor for compartment syndrome.

      While stabilisation is necessary after reduction, a below-elbow plaster is not appropriate for a supracondylar fracture. Instead, an above-elbow plaster or a collar and cuff is preferred. It is essential to choose the appropriate treatment option to minimise the risk of the fracture becoming displaced after reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having...

    Correct

    • After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
      Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      187.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred by her general practitioner. He has stated in his letter that the patient has vertebral tenderness at the level of the spine of her scapula, which you confirm by examination.
      What level is this vertebrae if the patient is in her 60s?

      Your Answer: T2

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Identifying Vertebral Levels: Landmarks and Importance in Clinical Scenarios

      Being able to identify the vertebral level is crucial in clinical scenarios, especially following trauma. It allows for effective communication with clinicians who may not be on site or at a distant tertiary center. To identify the level of the vertebral spine, certain landmarks can be used. The spine of the scapula is at T3, the most inferior aspect of the scapula is at T7, the most superior aspect of the iliac crest is at L4, and the posterior superior iliac spine is at S2. C7 is the level of the vertebra prominens, making it a useful landmark for orientation. The spine of the scapula is not found at T1, but it is found at T2. Knowing these landmarks and their corresponding vertebral levels is essential for effective communication and diagnosis in clinical scenarios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      24.2
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department following a fall while decorating...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department following a fall while decorating on a chair. She experienced intense pain in her hip immediately after the fall. X-rays show a fracture in the left neck of her femur. She has a history of seizures and takes topiramate. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and she is a non-smoker and non-vegetarian. She works as a landscaper. What is the probable cause of her fracture?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Correct Answer: Chronic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Chronic Acidosis and Pathological Fracture

      Chronic acidosis can lead to defective bone mineralization and an osteomalacia-like state, which can cause pathological fractures. Topiramate, an antiepileptic and migraine prophylaxis drug, has been found to cause chronic metabolic acidosis through renal tubular acidosis. The type of RTA induced by topiramate is debated, but it is considered a mixed RTA with features of both types 1 and 2. Topiramate-induced osteopathy is a differential diagnosis for vitamin D deficiency, hereditary hypophosphatasia, and chronic bisphosphonate use.

      In the case of a 36-year-old woman with a minor trauma resulting in a serious fracture, osteoporosis is unlikely, especially since there is no mention of drug intake like heparin, bisphosphonates, or steroids. Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition, but there is no mention of other features like bone pain or weakness, and her profession as an architect suggests substantial sunlight exposure. Multiple myeloma is also unlikely at this age, and there is no mention of other symptoms like renal failure or anemia. Therefore, the most likely cause of the pathological fracture is the chronic acidosis induced by topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
      Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations

      Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
      The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.

      Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
      The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.

      Scaphoid Fracture:
      Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.

      Simple Thumb Dislocation:
      The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.

      Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
      The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance

      The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.

      The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right arm while lifting a heavy bag of garden waste. The arm is visibly bruised, and upon flexing the elbow, a lump appears in the middle of the anterior aspect of the arm. The diagnosis is a rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii. Where does this tendon typically attach to a bony point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

      Explanation:

      The supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula is where the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii attaches within the shoulder joint capsule. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus is where the subscapularis muscle inserts, while the crest of the lesser tuberosity is where the latissimus dorsi and teres major muscles attach. The coracoid process of the scapula is where the short head of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis minor muscles attach. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is where the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles insert. Lastly, the long head of the triceps brachii attaches to the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula. These attachments and insertions are important for understanding the anatomy and function of the shoulder and arm muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy

      Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken to the Emergency Department where X-rays were taken. A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with the majority of the base of the third metacarpal bone.
      Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capitate

      Explanation:

      The Carpal Bones: An Overview of the Bones in the Wrist

      The wrist is composed of eight small bones known as the carpal bones. These bones are arranged in two rows, with each row containing four carpal bones. The proximal row includes the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, while the distal row includes the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.

      The capitate bone is located in the center of the wrist and articulates with the base of the third metacarpal bone. The trapezium bone is the most lateral bone in the distal row and articulates with the base of the first metacarpal bone. The hamate bone is the most medial bone in the distal row and articulates with the fourth and fifth metacarpal bones.

      The pisiform bone is a small, seed-shaped bone located on the medial side of the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones. The triquetrum bone is also located in the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones.

      Understanding the anatomy of the carpal bones is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip pain. He has been experiencing pain for a few months and has been taking paracetamol for relief. However, the pain has worsened and is now affecting his quality of life. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia, which are managed with regular metformin and simvastatin. He has never been hospitalized before. Blood tests reveal normal calcium and phosphate levels, but a significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level while the other hepatic aminotransferases are normal. No other blood abnormalities are detected. What condition is most consistent with these blood test results in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone and Joint Pain: Paget’s Disease

      Paget’s disease is a musculoskeletal pathology that can cause bone and joint pain. This disease is often asymptomatic for many years before being diagnosed through abnormal blood tests or X-ray images. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include constant, dull bone pain, joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. Shooting pain, numbness, tingling, or loss of movement may also occur.

      Other potential causes of bone and joint pain were considered and ruled out. Primary hyperparathyroidism, osteoporosis, and osteoarthritis were all unlikely due to normal calcium, phosphate, and ALP levels. Osteomalacia, a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency, can also cause bone and joint pain, but it is accompanied by low calcium and phosphate levels and a raised ALP.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and blood test results, Paget’s disease is the most likely diagnosis for their bone and joint pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful and deformed wrist that looks like a dinner fork. A radiograph shows a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Her past medical history includes osteoporosis, type II diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Distal Radial Fracture in an Elderly Patient

      Distal radial fractures, commonly known as Colles’ fractures, are often seen in elderly patients with poor bone quality. There are several treatment options available for this type of fracture, but the choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the fracture.

      Closed Reduction and Below-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      This is the most common treatment option for distal radial fractures. The fracture can be reduced with closed manipulation following a haematoma block, and then immobilized with a below-elbow backslab (half cast).

      Skeletal Traction
      Skeletal traction is not practical for distal radial fractures as it can cause stiffness in the limb.

      Open Reduction and Internal Fixation
      While open reduction and internal fixation can provide the most anatomical reduction, it comes with risks that may outweigh the benefits, especially in elderly patients with poor bone quality and co-morbidities.

      Intramedullary Rod
      An intramedullary rod is rarely used for upper limb fractures.

      Closed Reduction and Above-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      Although an above-elbow backslab can stabilize the joint above and below the fracture, it is not recommended as it can cause stiffness and difficulty in regaining full use after removal.

      In conclusion, the treatment of distal radial fractures in elderly patients should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s overall health and the severity of the fracture. Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast) is the most common treatment option, while other options should be considered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling

      Explanation:

      Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment

      A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the waist after a coughing fit. She is not taking any medications and her clinical observations are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporotic wedge fracture

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Back Pain in a 72-Year-Old Woman

      Back pain is a common complaint in primary care, and its differential diagnosis can be challenging. In this case, a 72-year-old woman presents with back pain after a coughing fit. The following conditions are considered and ruled out based on the available information:

      – Osteoporotic wedge fracture: postmenopausal women are at increased risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to vertebral fractures from minor trauma. This possibility should be considered in any older patient with back pain, especially if there is a history of osteoporosis or low-trauma injury.
      – Herniated lumbar disc prolapse: This condition typically causes sciatica, which is pain that radiates down the leg to the ankle. The absence of this symptom makes it less likely.
      – Mechanical back pain: This is a common cause of back pain, especially in older adults. It is usually aggravated by heavy lifting and prolonged standing or sitting, but not necessarily by coughing.
      – Osteoarthritis: This condition can cause back pain, especially in the lower back, but it is not typically associated with coughing. It tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest.
      – Osteomyelitis: This is a serious infection of the bone that can cause severe pain and fever. It is less likely in this case because the patient’s clinical observations are normal.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for back pain in a 72-year-old woman includes several possibilities, such as osteoporotic fracture, herniated disc, mechanical pain, osteoarthritis, and osteomyelitis. A thorough history and physical examination, along with appropriate imaging and laboratory tests, can help narrow down the possibilities and guide the management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is worried about her chances of developing osteoporosis, as her mother and sister experienced pelvic fractures due to osteoporosis after menopause. What is the most effective test to determine her likelihood of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a common condition among postmenopausal women, with a high risk of fractures. Genetic predisposition, lack of exercise, and immobility are some of the contributing factors. To diagnose osteoporosis, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a commonly used test to measure bone density. It compares the patient’s bone density with that of their peer group to estimate the risk of fractures. The T-score and Z-score are used to interpret the results. A T-score higher than −1 is normal, between −1 and −2.5 is osteopenia, and below −2.5 is osteoporotic. A Z-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of individuals of the same sex, age, weight, and ethnicity.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis may suggest osteopenia, but a DEXA scan is needed for a diagnosis. Pelvic X-ray is used to detect pelvic fractures. Serum alkaline phosphatase is normal in osteoporosis patients, while serum calcium is useful in ruling out alternative diagnoses.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis of osteoporosis is crucial to prevent fractures and improve quality of life. DEXA scan is the gold standard for measuring bone density, while other tests may be used to rule out alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm

      Explanation:

      Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider

      When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 20 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His father informs the admitting doctor that the child has had a temperature for three days, has been irritable, and is quite inactive. The child has also mentioned that his right leg has been sore, and has been reluctant to walk, although there has been no history of injury.
      On examination, the child has a temperature of 39 oC, and the doctor notes an area of swelling and redness over the right shin. Following investigation, a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is made.
      Which one of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most common site is metaphysis of the femur

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Common Sites, Risk Factors, and Causative Organisms

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria spreading through the bloodstream, local cellulitis, or penetrating trauma. The most common site of infection in children is the metaphysis of the long bones, while in adults, it is the vertebrae, followed by the humerus, maxilla, and mandibular bones. X-rays may not show abnormalities in the early stages, but bone scans can provide more detailed imaging. Intravenous drug usage is a significant risk factor, and Salmonella species are the most common causative organism in patients with sickle-cell anaemia, while S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species are common in adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the costal margin at the mid-axillary line on her left side.
      Which rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenth rib

      Explanation:

      The Tenth Rib and the Costal Margin

      The tenth rib plays an important role in forming the costal margin. This margin is the lower edge of the ribcage, and it helps to protect the organs in the abdomen. Specifically, the tenth rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line. It is important to note that the eighth, seventh, and ninth ribs do not form the costal margin. Additionally, the eleventh and twelfth ribs are shorter than the tenth rib and do not reach as far as the mid-axillary line. Understanding the anatomy of the ribcage and the costal margin can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 22 - A 78-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a fall at home. She is experiencing right-hip pain and has limited range of motion in the right hip. Although there is no apparent fracture of the right hip or pelvis on plain X-ray (AP lateral view), the patient is still in significant pain and cannot bear weight. What is the preferred diagnostic test for a suspected hidden fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Hip Fractures and Bone Density Assessment

      Hip fractures can be difficult to diagnose, especially if they are occult fractures that do not appear on initial X-rays. It is important to identify these fractures early to prevent long-term disability. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using MRI as the imaging modality of choice if a hip fracture is suspected despite negative X-rays. If MRI is not available within 24 hours, a CT scan may be considered.

      Ultrasound scans of the hip are commonly used to investigate developmental dysplasia of the hip, but they are not useful in diagnosing occult fractures. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans are used to assess bone density after a suspected fragility fracture, but they are not used in diagnosing occult fractures.

      Positron-emission tomography (PET) scans use radioactive isotopes to detect areas of increased metabolic activity, such as rapidly growing tumors. They are not used in diagnosing hip fractures or assessing bone density.

      The initial X-ray for a suspected hip fracture will include lateral views, as a fracture may be difficult to identify on one view but obvious on another.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 23 - A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
      This sign is most likely to be caused by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.

      It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

      While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion

      A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.

      Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old retired labourer visits his General Practitioner complaining of generalised pains in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old retired labourer visits his General Practitioner complaining of generalised pains in his hands. During the consultation, he mentions that the pain is more severe in the morning and after prolonged use. What clinical indication in his hands indicates the presence of osteoarthritic changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heberden nodes

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Deformities and Their Causes

      Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard nodes are bony growths that indicate osteoarthritis in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Arachnodactyly is characterized by long, thin fingers and is often seen in patients with Marfan syndrome. Claw hand is caused by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, usually due to an ulnar nerve lesion. Dupuytren’s contracture results in a flexion deformity of the fingers due to thickening of the palmar fascia, often affecting the little and ring fingers. Trigger finger occurs when nodules form on the tendons, causing them to get caught and leading to difficulty in extending and flexing the finger. All of these conditions can cause pain and discomfort in the hand, and may require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
      These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall from a horse. She complains of pain in the left lower limb.
      Examination of the patient reveals dry mucous membranes and tachycardia. Her left thigh is swollen and tender, and an X-ray confirms fracture of the left femur.
      Which of the following statements regarding a fracture of the femur is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb.

      Explanation:

      Femoral Fractures: Myths and Facts

      Femoral fractures are common and can have serious consequences. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding these injuries. Here are some facts to help dispel these myths:

      Myth: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause limb shortening.
      Fact: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb due to muscle contractions.

      Myth: Subcapital fractures of the femoral neck do not cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
      Fact: Intracapsular fractures of the femoral neck can disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head and cause avascular necrosis.

      Myth: Pertrochanteric fractures of the femur are always associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
      Fact: Pertrochanteric fractures lie outside of the line of attachment of the hip joint capsule and are not typically associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      Myth: Closed fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause significant blood loss.
      Fact: Fractures of the femoral shaft can cause significant blood loss into the soft tissue of the thigh.

      Myth: Traction splints should always be applied to distal supracondylar fractures of the femur.
      Fact: Application of a traction splint to a supracondylar fracture of the distal femur may cause disimpaction of the fracture and damage to the popliteal artery.

      By understanding the facts about femoral fractures, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 28 - What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she...

    Incorrect

    • What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus

      Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.

      Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.

      Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 29 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
      Which of the following structures is most at risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachial artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus

      Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.

      Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.

      Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.

      Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 31 - A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event....

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event. She undergoes exercise stress testing.
      What is the most probable occurrence in this woman's skeletal muscles during exercise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased arteriolar diameter

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Blood Flow in Exercising Muscles

      During exercise, several factors affect blood flow in the muscles. One of these factors is the diameter of the arterioles, which can increase due to vasodilation of muscle arterioles. Another factor is the concentration of metabolites, such as adenosine, carbon dioxide, and lactic acid, which accumulate in the tissues due to oxygen deficiency and cause vasodilation.

      As a result of these factors, blood flow to the muscles can increase up to 20-fold during exercise, which is the greatest increase in any tissue in the body. This increase in blood flow is mainly due to the actions of local vasodilator substances on the muscle arterioles.

      However, the increased demand for oxygen during exercise can also lead to a decrease in oxygen concentration in the tissues. This, in turn, can cause an increase in vascular resistance, which can further affect blood flow to the muscles.

      Overall, understanding the factors that affect blood flow in exercising muscles is important for optimizing exercise performance and preventing injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 32 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.

      Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.

      Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.

      A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 33 - A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
      What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures

      Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.

      3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.

      While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 34 - A 68-year-old lady presents following a fall on her outstretched hand (FOOSH). She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady presents following a fall on her outstretched hand (FOOSH). She has marked pain around the wrist joint with bony tenderness on palpation. A wrist X-ray demonstrates a fracture of the distal radius with anterior (palmar) displacement of the distal fragment. There is no neurovascular compromise.
      Select the most appropriate initial management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to orthopaedics for reduction under anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Smith’s Fracture

      Smith’s fracture, also known as a reverse Colles’ fracture, is a type of wrist fracture where the distal radius fragment is displaced anteriorly/volarly. The following are treatment options for this type of fracture:

      Reduction under local anaesthesia: This method is not recommended for best cosmetic and functional results.

      Reduction under anaesthetic: This method involves either a manipulation under anaesthetic (MUA) or an open reduction and fixation (ORIF) for best cosmetic and functional results.

      Application of a scaphoid cast and referral to Fracture clinic: This method is not indicated for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.

      Application of a backslab plaster of Paris cast and referral to Fracture clinic the next day: This method is not appropriate for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.

      Application of a backslab plaster of Paris cast and referral to Fracture clinic in 2-6 weeks: This method is not appropriate for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.

      Treatment Options for Smith’s Fracture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
      What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb

      The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:

      1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.

      2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.

      3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.

      5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.

      Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 36 - An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in his left upper leg over the past 4 months. After conducting a thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP decides to order a set of blood tests and an X-ray of the left femur. Upon reviewing the results, the GP notices that the X-ray report indicates an area of cotton-wool calcification. What condition is cotton-wool calcification on an X-ray typically linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Bone Tumours and their Characteristics

      Bone tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of bone tumours and their features:

      Chondrosarcoma: This is a malignant tumour that arises from cartilage. It is commonly found in long bones and is characterized by popcorn or cotton wool calcification. Paget’s disease is also associated with cotton wool calcification.

      Osteoid osteoma: This is a benign, isolated lesion that is usually less than 2 cm in size and has an ovoid shape.

      Osteosarcoma: This is the most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by sun-ray spiculations and Codman’s triangle. Codman’s triangle is a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when the periosteum is raised away from the bone by an aggressive bone lesion.

      Ewing’s sarcoma: This is the second most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by onion skin periostitis and Codman’s triangle.

      Osteoclastoma: This is a well-defined, non-sclerotic area that is usually not malignant.

      In summary, bone tumours can have different characteristics and features, and their classification can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 37 - A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind

      The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:

      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
      – The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
      – The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
      – The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
      – The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.

      Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigger finger

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis

      Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.

      Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.

      Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 39 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated his right shoulder. X-rays showed an anterior dislocation but no fractures. The shoulder was easily reduced without complications, and post-reduction radiographs were satisfactory. At his 2-week follow-up with his general practitioner, he reports difficulty in abducting his right arm. There are no neurovascular defects, and he has full sensation and good radial pulses. What imaging modality would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the shoulder

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Shoulder Injuries: MRI, Bone Scans, CT Scans, X-rays, and EMG

      Shoulder injuries in patients over 40 years old are often associated with acute avulsion injuries and rotator cuff tears. These tears can be degenerative and not related to trauma. The incidence of rotator cuff tears after acute dislocation in patients over 40 years old is high. Ultrasound and MRI are the preferred diagnostic tools for rotator cuff disease.

      Bone scans are not useful in this scenario, and CT scans with iv contrast may reveal bony pathology but are not necessary. Repeat shoulder X-rays are also not beneficial if the post-reduction X-rays are normal.

      Axillary nerve and brachial plexus injuries can occur after acute shoulder dislocation, but EMG is not necessary if there is no sensory deficit or distal weakness. Overall, MRI is the most effective diagnostic tool for shoulder injuries in this patient population.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 41 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did not respond to over-the-counter analgesics. Pain is increasing in the night and is constant. It is not subsiding with rest. There is no history of trauma. She is a known diabetic and hypertensive. She had an episode of deep vein thrombosis 1 month ago and was on heparin for 3 weeks. She had no children and her husband passed away a year ago. Her current medications include captopril, metformin, warfarin, atorvastatin and aspirin 375 mg. X-ray of the spine shows a fracture of C6 vertebra.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying disease causing the fracture at this vertebral level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Causes of Vertebral Fractures: A Guide for Clinicians

      When a patient presents with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the underlying cause. Fractures at or above the T4 level are suggestive of cancer, rather than osteoporosis. This is especially true if the patient has no known primary cancer, as it may be a case of metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary.

      postmenopausal osteoporosis and heparin-induced osteoporosis typically do not cause fractures at or above T4. Instead, fractures below T4 are more commonly seen in osteoporosis. However, a higher fracture associated with thoracic back pain is a red flag feature that should be investigated further with imaging, such as an MRI spine, as cancer is suspected.

      Statin-induced myopathy is another condition that can cause muscle pain and weakness, but it does not typically present with back pain or vertebral fractures. Similarly, renal osteodystrophy due to diabetic nephropathy can affect the spine, but this patient does not have chronic renal failure. If diabetic nephropathy is present, it may progress to renal failure, which can lead to renal osteodystrophy.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the location of the fracture and any other symptoms or risk factors. This can help clinicians distinguish between potential causes and guide appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 43 - How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe...

    Incorrect

    • How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe osteoporosis despite the fact that primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism are associated with loss of bone mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By having a direct anabolic effect on bone

      Explanation:

      The Mechanisms of Parathyroid Hormone in Osteoporosis Treatment

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a complex role in the treatment of osteoporosis. While chronic elevation of PTH can lead to bone loss, mild elevations can help maintain trabecular bone mass. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, has been shown to increase bone mass and improve skeletal structure. However, PTH’s ability to increase bone remodelling is not beneficial in osteoporosis treatment, and chronic elevation can worsen the condition by increasing calcium resorption. PTH can activate the enzyme needed for activating vitamin D, but this is not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Additionally, PTH can decrease calcium excretion from the kidneys, but this is also not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Overall, PTH’s direct anabolic effect on bone is the most significant mechanism for its use in osteoporosis treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 44 - A 14-year-old girl attends the Minor Injuries Unit, having ‘twisted’ her left ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl attends the Minor Injuries Unit, having ‘twisted’ her left ankle during a hockey match. She played on after the injury and has come to see you after the game ended, as her ankle has become increasingly swollen and painful.
      She has walked into the Emergency Department unaided. There is marked swelling around the left ankle. There is some tenderness anterior to the lateral malleolus. Otherwise, there is no bony tenderness on examination of the ankle, foot and knee.
      Select the most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, then discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Ankle Sprains in the Emergency Department

      Ankle sprains are a common presentation in the Emergency Department. The initial management of ankle sprains involves analgesia, rest, ice and elevation. X-ray imaging is not indicated unless the patient meets the Ottawa ankle rules, which include the inability to weight-bear and point tenderness at specific areas.

      In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for X-ray imaging and can be discharged with standard therapy for sprains. Compressive bandaging is no longer recommended, and first-line therapy should include paracetamol and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

      The patient’s symptoms and signs suggest an injury of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), which is commonly damaged in inversion injuries of the ankle. Referral to orthopaedics is not necessary at this time, and ankle traction is not indicated unless there is an obvious deformity or displaced fracture.

      In summary, the management of ankle sprains in the Emergency Department involves careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and adherence to the Ottawa ankle rules to determine the need for X-ray imaging. Standard therapy for sprains should include analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, with consideration of first-line pharmacotherapy.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 45 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures

      Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.

      Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.

      In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 47 - A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5 years ago, is admitted with complaints of pain in both groins that is radiating down to the thighs and buttocks. Movements around the hip are severely restricted and he has a limp while walking. The pain developed insidiously and has gradually worsened. There is no history of trauma. He is currently on 25 mg prednisone/day and cyclophosphamide. An X-ray of the pelvis and hips shows no abnormality.
      What is the most likely cause of this hip pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head can be caused by chronic corticosteroid use or excessive alcohol consumption, with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) also being a risk factor. X-rays may not show changes until weeks later, so magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred diagnostic tool. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a disorder of the adolescent hip that occurs when the femoral head slips off in a backward direction due to a weakness in the growth plate. Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression will present with severe pain, joint tenderness, and swelling, and is unlikely to present bilaterally. Osteomalacia, which is characterized by decreased bone mineralization, can cause pathological fractures and diffuse bone pain. Steroid-induced osteoporosis, on the other hand, is characterized by osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures, and can be treated with bisphosphonates.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left anatomical snuffbox. Specialized scaphoid views (X-rays) are taken, but no abnormality is detected. However, there is still clinical suspicion of a fracture. What should be the next most suitable step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat scaphoid views in 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Repeat Scaphoid Views in Suspected Fractures

      When a scaphoid fracture is suspected but not visible on initial X-rays, it is recommended to repeat the radiographs in 10-14 days. During this time, bone resorption around the fracture occurs, making the diagnosis easier. However, proceeding without treatment is not advised due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Requesting another lateral view or a bone scan would not be appropriate. Instead, a cast is usually applied after the acute injury and remains in place until the fracture is diagnosed. MRI wrist imaging after only 3 days is not necessary in this setting. Repeat scaphoid views are crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 50 - A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.

      The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.

      Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.

      If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.

      After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 51 - An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing...

    Incorrect

    • An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis

      Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:

      Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.

      Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.

      Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.

      Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.

      Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.

      Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 52 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur

      Explanation:

      Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma

      Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.

      The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.

      Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain. She says that she has had the pain for past two years and that it started gradually. The patient has no past medical history. There is no evidence or history of trauma. Upon examination the patient has normal power in the lower and upper limbs, and sensation is intact. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no significant family history. She is discharged with analgesia.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mobilisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Back Pain: Explained

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. In managing lower back pain, it is important to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s back pain is most likely mechanical in nature. Mobilisation has been shown to be effective in reducing back pain, and bed rest is not advised as it can worsen the pain and affect the patient’s daily activities. A lumbar X-ray is not necessary unless there is suspicion of a fracture. Referral to physiotherapy or alternative therapies may be considered if initial management is not effective. An MRI would be indicated if there are any ‘red flags’ in the history.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 54 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management

      Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.

      The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.

      It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.

      In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 55 - A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from a motorbike accident. He is now 10 days post injury and has had a spinal fixation. He is paraplegic with a sensory level at T2. He has had a normal blood pressure today requiring no haemodynamic support. You are called to see him on the trauma ward as he has a tachycardia at about 150/beat per minute and very high blood pressure, up to 230/110 mmHg. The nurses have just changed his catheter. He says he feels slightly strange, sweaty and flushed in his face.
      What would explain this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autonomic Dysreflexia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differentiation from Other Conditions

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition characterized by hypertension, sweating, and flushing, with bradycardia being a common feature. It occurs due to excessive sympathetic activity in the absence of parasympathetic supply in a high spinal lesion, typically above the level of T6. The exact physiology of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a reaction to a stimulus below the level of the spinal lesion. Simple stimuli such as urinary tract infection, a full bladder, or bladder or rectal instrumentation can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It usually occurs at least 10 days after the injury and after the initial spinal shock has resolved.

      Differentiating autonomic dysreflexia from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Pulmonary embolus, for instance, is associated with sinus tachycardia but rarely causes hypertension. Neurogenic shock, on the other hand, causes hypotension and occurs at the acute onset of the injury. Stress cardiomyopathy is typically associated with head injury and causes heart failure and hypotension. Anxiety and depression are unlikely to cause such a swift and marked rise in blood pressure and heart rate and would typically be associated with hyperventilation. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differentiation of autonomic dysreflexia is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 56 - A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.

      A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.

      Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.

      Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.

      Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 57 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a fall. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a fall. The patient is conscious and aware of her surroundings. She explains that she stumbled over a rug and used her right hand to break her fall. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications or supplements. She typically drinks one glass of wine per day and is a non-smoker. There is no relevant family history. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the right wrist, and a CT scan confirms the diagnosis.
      Which bone is most likely to be fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      An elderly woman fell on an outstretched hand and is at risk for osteopenia/osteoporosis. This history suggests a scaphoid fracture, which can lead to avascular necrosis of the proximal portion of the bone if left untreated. A distal radial fracture, or Colles’ fracture, is also a possibility. The pisiform, a sesamoid bone on the ulnar aspect of the wrist, can be injured through a fall and may present with chronic wrist pain, grip weakness, or restricted wrist movement. The hook of the hamate, which forms the ulnar border of the carpal tunnel, can be fractured by hitting a club or bat onto a hard surface. Triquetrum and capitate fractures are less common but can occur following a fall on an outstretched hand and may be associated with a scaphoid fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 58 - A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear

      Explanation:

      Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 59 - A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.

      The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 60 - A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of knee pain that worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of knee pain that worsens after prolonged activity. Despite undergoing physiotherapy and losing weight for her osteoarthritis, her symptoms persist. The GP orders an X-ray to confirm the diagnosis. What knee X-ray result indicates a different condition than osteoarthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in bone marrow density

      Explanation:

      Understanding X-ray Findings in Osteoarthritis

      Osteoarthritis is a common joint disorder that can be diagnosed through X-ray imaging. One of the key findings in X-rays of patients with osteoarthritis is a reduction in bone marrow density, indicating a significant loss of bone density. On the other hand, osteophyte formation, which are bony spurs that form at joint margins, is a typical finding in osteoarthritis. Another common finding is a loss of joint space, which is caused by cartilage loss. However, it is important to note that a normal X-ray does not necessarily rule out osteoarthritis, as changes on an X-ray may not always correlate with a patient’s level of symptoms. Finally, subchondral sclerosis, which is the increased bone marrow density around joint margins affected by osteoarthritis, is another common finding in X-rays of patients with osteoarthritis. Understanding these X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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