-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and spreading to the groin. You suspect she may have ureteric colic.
According to NICE, which of the following painkillers is recommended as the initial treatment for rapid relief of severe pain in ureteric colic?Your Answer: Intravenous paracetamol
Correct Answer: Intramuscular diclofenac
Explanation:The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.
Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.
The pain usually:
– Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
– Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
– Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).People with renal or ureteric colic:
– Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
– May have a history of previous episodes
– May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
– May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.
Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.
Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.
Pain management:
– Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
– Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
– Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
– Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been present for the past five days. The pain has been gradually increasing and there is now noticeable swelling of the testis. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman comes in with intense pain in her right flank and microscopic blood in her urine. After evaluation, you diagnose her with renal colic.
What is the ONE medication that has been proven to improve the passage of kidney stones in cases of renal colic?Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Explanation:NSAIDs are known to have a relaxing effect on the ureter, but a randomized controlled trial found no difference between NSAIDs and a placebo in terms of this effect. Currently, only two classes of drugs, calcium channel blockers and alpha-blockers, are considered effective as medical expulsive therapy (MET). Calcium channel blockers work by blocking the active calcium channel pump that the smooth muscle of the ureter uses to contract, resulting in relaxation of the muscle and improved stone passage. Alpha-blockers, on the other hand, are commonly used as the first-line treatment to enhance stone passage. They reduce the basal tone of the ureter smooth muscle, decrease the frequency of peristaltic waves, and lower ureteric contraction. This leads to a decrease in intraureteric pressure below the stone, increasing the chances of stone passage. Patients treated with calcium channel blockers or alpha-blockers have been shown to have a 65% higher likelihood of spontaneous stone passage compared to those not given these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman comes in with complaints of dysuria and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on this, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics.
Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
– Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
– Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release PO BD for the past two days.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
– Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
– Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and spreading to the groin. She is also experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Her urine dipstick shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
Which of the following medications would be the LEAST appropriate choice to help manage this patient's pain?Your Answer: Buscopan
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the loin area caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with urinary tract stones. The pain typically starts in the flank or loin and radiates to the labia in women or to the groin or testicle in men.
The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is severe and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache in between. It can last for minutes to hours. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine (haematuria) often accompany the pain. Many individuals describe this pain as the most intense they have ever felt, with some women even comparing it to the pain of childbirth.
People with renal or ureteric colic are restless and unable to find relief by lying still, which helps distinguish this condition from peritonitis. They may have a history of previous episodes and may also present with fever and sweating if there is a concurrent urinary infection. As the stone irritates the detrusor muscle, they may complain of dysuria (painful urination), frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the vesicoureteric junction.
To support the diagnosis, it is recommended to perform urine dipstick testing to check for evidence of a urinary tract infection. The presence of blood in the urine can also indicate renal or ureteric colic, although it is not a definitive diagnostic marker. Nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine suggest the presence of an infection.
In terms of pain management, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic. Intravenous paracetamol can be offered if NSAIDs are contraindicated or not providing sufficient pain relief. Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are contraindicated or not effective. Antispasmodics should not be given to individuals with suspected renal colic.
For more detailed information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic blood in the urine. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
What is the most frequently occurring type of kidney stone?Your Answer: Calcium containing stones
Explanation:Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.
The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.
Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.
Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.
By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testicle. He has observed that it begins to ache around midday and becomes most severe by the end of the day. He has never fathered any children. He is in good overall health and has no record of experiencing nausea, vomiting, or fever.
What is the MOST PROBABLE single diagnosis?Your Answer: Seminoma of the testis
Correct Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:A Varicocele is a condition characterized by the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more commonly found in the left testis than in the right and may be associated with infertility. The increased temperature caused by the varicosities is believed to be the reason for this. Symptoms include a dull ache in the testis, which tends to worsen after exercise or towards the end of the day. The presence of Varicocele can often be observed during a standing examination. Treatment usually involves conservative measures, although surgery may be necessary in severe cases.
A hydrocoele can occur at any age and is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It presents as swelling in the scrotum, which can be palpated above. The surface of the hydrocoele is smooth and it can be transilluminated. The testis is contained within the swelling and cannot be felt separately. Primary or secondary causes can lead to the development of a hydrocoele. In adults, an ultrasound is typically performed to rule out secondary causes, such as an underlying tumor. Conservative management is often sufficient unless the hydrocoele is large.
Testicular cancer is the most common cancer affecting men between the ages of 20 and 34. Recent campaigns have emphasized the importance of self-examination for early detection. Risk factors include undescended testes, which increase the risk by 10 times if bilateral. A previous history of testicular cancer carries a 4% risk of developing a second cancer. The usual presentation is a painless lump in the testis, which can also manifest as a secondary hydrocoele. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and typically confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. Stage 1 seminomas have a 98% 5-year survival rate. Teratomas, which can grow more rapidly, account for 40% of cases and can occur alongside seminomas. Mixed type tumors are treated as teratomas due to their higher aggressiveness. Surgical intervention, with or without chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is the primary treatment approach.
Epididymo-orchitis refers to inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by an infection. The most common viral agent is mumps, while gonococci and coliforms are the most common bacterial agent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect a diagnosis of ureteric colic.
What is the preferred imaging technique for confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Contrast helical computed tomography
Correct Answer: Non-contrast helical computed tomography
Explanation:The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.
Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.
The pain usually:
– Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
– Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
– Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).People with renal or ureteric colic:
– Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
– May have a history of previous episodes
– May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
– May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.
Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.
Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.
Pain management:
– Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
– Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
– Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
– Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman comes in with dysuria, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she shows tenderness in the left renal angle and has a temperature of 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the lab.
What is the MOST suitable antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 57-year-old woman with a long history of frequent urination and difficulty emptying her bladder completely presents with a high fever, shivering, and body aches. She is experiencing pain in her pelvic area and has recently developed painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, her prostate is extremely tender. Due to a previous adverse reaction, he has been advised against taking quinolone antibiotics.
According to NICE, which of the following antibiotics is recommended as the first-line treatment for this patient's diagnosis?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 70-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria and mild urinary urgency. Urine microscopy and culture are normal. An intravenous urogram (IVU) was also performed recently and was reported as being normal. On examination, you note that her bladder feels slightly distended. The rest of her examination was entirely normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Bladder cancer is the most likely diagnosis in this case, as patients with painless haematuria should undergo cystoscopy to rule out bladder cancer. This procedure is typically done in an outpatient setting as part of a haematuria clinic, using a flexible cystoscope and local anaesthetic.
Prostate cancer is less likely in this case, as the patient’s prostate examination was relatively normal and he only had mild symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction.
Bladder cancer is the seventh most common cancer in the UK, with men being three times more likely to develop it than women. The main risk factors for bladder cancer are increasing age and smoking. Smoking is responsible for about 50% of bladder cancers, as it is believed to be linked to the excretion of aromatic amines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons through the kidneys. Smokers have a 2-6 times higher risk of developing bladder cancer compared to non-smokers.
Painless macroscopic haematuria is the most common symptom in 80-90% of bladder cancer patients. There are usually no abnormalities found during a standard physical examination.
Current recommendations state that the following patients should be urgently referred for a urological assessment: adults over 45 years old with unexplained visible haematuria not caused by a urinary tract infection, adults over 45 years old with visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of a urinary tract infection, and adults aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.
For those aged 60 and over with recurrent or persistent unexplained urinary tract infections, a non-urgent referral for bladder cancer is recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testis that has been present for the past three days. The pain has been gradually increasing, and there is now noticeable swelling of the testis. During the examination, he has a fever with a temperature of 38.5°C, and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by an infectious source. The most common way of infection is through local extension, often resulting from infections spreading from the urethra or bladder.
In individuals below the age of 35, sexually transmitted pathogens like Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are the primary causes. On the other hand, in individuals over the age of 35, non-sexually transmitted infections caused by Gram-negative enteric organisms that lead to urinary tract infections are more common.
Typically, patients with epididymo-orchitis experience sudden onset of unilateral scrotal pain and swelling. The affected testis is tender to touch, and there is usually a noticeable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be affected, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may have a fever and may also have urethral discharge.
It is crucial to consider testicular torsion as the most important differential diagnosis. This should be taken into account for all patients with sudden testicular pain, as the testicle needs to be saved within 6 hours of onset. Torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is extremely acute and severe. Typically, torsion presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 35-year-old patient is worried because she has observed blood in her urine for the past few days. She is not currently experiencing her menstrual cycle, and there is no possibility of pregnancy. She has not had any recent fevers but has noticed some discomfort in her lower abdomen. Additionally, she has been urinating more frequently than usual. She is not taking any medications. During the examination, her abdomen is soft, with slight tenderness in the suprapubic region. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness, and she does not experience any renal angle tenderness. Her urine appears pinkish in color and tests positive for leukocytes, protein, and blood on the dipstick.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:This is a classical history for a simple urinary tract infection. The other possible causes mentioned can also result in frank haematuria, but they would be less likely based on the given history.
Bladder cancer typically presents with additional symptoms such as an abdominal mass, weight loss, and fatigue. Nephritis is more likely to cause renal angle tenderness and some systemic upset. It is often preceded by another infection.
Tuberculosis may also have more systemic involvement, although it can present on its own. Renal stones commonly cause severe pain from the loin to the groin and renal angle tenderness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a ‘lump’ in her right breast. She is very worried that she may have breast cancer. On examination, she has a painless, well-defined mass that can be felt separate from the breast tissue. The mass is transilluminating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Epididymal cysts are commonly observed in men who are over the age of 40. They often appear in multiple numbers and can be found on both sides. These cysts are typically well-defined, soft to the touch, and can be illuminated when light is passed through them. Since they develop in the epididymis, they can be felt as separate from the testis, which helps to differentiate them from hydroceles. In most cases, these cysts cause no significant issues and do not require any treatment. However, larger cysts can become bothersome and may need to be drained or surgically removed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body of his left testis. Upon examination, the lump is firm, located within the testis, and does not show transillumination.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Testicular cancer
Explanation:Testicular cancer is the most common form of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 34. In recent times, there have been campaigns aimed at raising awareness about the importance of self-examination for early detection. Some risk factors for this type of cancer include having undescended testes, especially if it affects both testicles, which increases the risk by ten times. Additionally, individuals who have had testicular cancer in the past have a 4% chance of developing a second cancer.
The typical presentation of testicular cancer is a painless swelling in the testicles. When examined, the swelling feels hard and is located within the testis. It cannot be illuminated when light is shone through it. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and usually confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. If seminomas are diagnosed at stage 1 (confined to the testis only), the 5-year survival rate is 98%. The remaining 40% of cases are teratomas, which can grow at a faster rate and often coexist with seminomas. In cases where the tumors are of mixed type, they are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. The main treatment for testicular cancer is surgery, with the possibility of additional chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of benign prostatic hyperplasia dribbling presents with a fever, chills, and muscle aches. After taking a detailed history and conducting an examination, you diagnose acute bacterial prostatitis and decide to start antibiotics.
What is the recommended duration of treatment for this condition?Your Answer: 28 days
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department in evident distress. He woke up this morning with sudden and intense pain in his right testicle. He also experiences some discomfort in his right iliac fossa. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice while waiting. Upon examination, his right testicle is firm, highly sensitive, and positioned slightly higher than the left side.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the spermatic cord twists, leading to a lack of blood flow to the testis. It is a surgical emergency and prompt action is necessary to save the testis. It is most commonly seen in individuals aged 15-30 years.
Varicocele refers to the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more frequently observed in the left testis and may be associated with infertility. This is believed to be due to the increased temperature caused by the varicose veins. Symptoms include a dull ache in the testis, which is often worse after exercise or at the end of the day. Standing examination can reveal the presence of Varicocele. Treatment is usually conservative, with surgery reserved for severe cases.
Hydrocoele can occur at any age and is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It presents as scrotal swelling, which can be palpated above. The surface of the hydrocoele is smooth and it can be transilluminated. The testis is contained within the swelling and cannot be felt separately. Primary or secondary causes can lead to hydrocoele, and in adults, an ultrasound is performed to rule out underlying pathology such as tumors. Conservative management is often sufficient unless the hydrocoele is large.
Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 20-34 years. Awareness campaigns have emphasized the importance of self-examination for early detection. Risk factors include undescended testes, which increase the risk by 10-fold if bilateral. A previous history of testicular cancer carries a 4% risk of developing a second cancer. The usual presentation is a painless lump in the testis, which can also manifest as a secondary hydrocoele. Seminomas account for 60% of cases and are slow-growing, usually confined to the testis upon diagnosis. Stage 1 seminomas have a 98% 5-year survival rate. Teratomas, which can grow faster, make up 40% of cases and can occur within seminomas. Mixed type tumors are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. Surgical treatment, with or without chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is the primary approach.
Epididymo-orchitis is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of sudden right-sided scrotal pain and high fever. On examination, the epididymis is tender and swollen, and the overlying scrotal skin is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain. He has a history of epilepsy and takes phenytoin for it. He has no other significant medical history and no known allergies to medications.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man presents with a right-sided scrotal swelling. He is also experiencing a 'pulling sensation' in the same testis, which worsens after physical activity. During the examination, you are unable to feel a lump while the patient is lying down, but upon standing, you notice a poorly defined, non-translucent mass that is clearly separate from the testis and is located above and behind the testis. The scrotum feels like 'a bag of worms', the mass increases in size when the patient performs the Valsalva maneuver, and there is a cough impulse present.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:A varicocele is a condition characterized by the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more commonly observed in the left testis compared to the right and may be linked to infertility. The primary reason for this association is believed to be the elevated temperature of the testis caused by the presence of varicosities.
Typically, individuals with varicocele experience a dull ache in the testis, which tends to worsen after physical activity or towards the end of the day. The scrotum is often described as feeling like a bag of worms. While the varicocele cannot usually be detected when the patient is lying down, it can often be identified during examination while standing. It is felt as a poorly defined, non-transilluminable mass that is clearly separate from the testis and is located above and behind it. The dilation of the varicocele increases when the Valsalva maneuver is performed, and a cough impulse may also be present.
Conservative treatment is typically recommended for varicocele, with surgery being reserved for severe cases only.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man with a prolonged history of nocturia and dribbling at the end of urination comes in with a fever, chills, and muscle soreness. He is experiencing discomfort in his perineal region and has recently developed painful urination, frequent urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, his prostate is extremely tender.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 35-year-old individual presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. They are also experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. The urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
What is a reason for immediate hospital admission in a patient with ureteric colic?Your Answer: Signs of systemic infection
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the flank or loin area and radiating to the groin or testicle in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever felt, with many women comparing it to the pain of childbirth. Restlessness and an inability to find relief by lying still are common signs, which can help differentiate renal colic from peritonitis. Previous episodes of similar pain may also be reported by the individual. In cases where there is a concomitant urinary infection, fever and sweating may be present. Additionally, the person may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
It is important to seek urgent medical attention if certain conditions are met. These include signs of systemic infection or sepsis, such as fever or sweating, or if the person is at a higher risk of acute kidney injury, such as having pre-existing chronic kidney disease, a solitary or transplanted kidney, or suspected bilateral obstructing stones. Hospital admission is also necessary if the person is dehydrated and unable to consume fluids orally due to nausea and/or vomiting. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, it is recommended to consult further resources, such as the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old patient comes in with a 3-day history of urgency, increased frequency of urination, and discomfort while urinating. Upon examination, she has no fever, mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, and no tenderness in the flank region. Her pregnancy test is negative and she has no medication allergies.
What is the MOST suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: The urine should be sent to the lab for microscopy and sensitivities
Correct Answer: The patient should be started on a 3-day course of oral trimethoprim
Explanation:Classical symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) typically include dysuria, suprapubic tenderness, urgency, haematuria, increased frequency of micturition, and polyuria. The Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) has developed comprehensive guidelines for the management of UTIs. According to these guidelines, if a patient presents with three or more classical UTI symptoms and is not pregnant, it is recommended to initiate empirical treatment with a three-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. For more detailed information, you can refer to the SIGN guidelines on the management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in adults.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and spreading to the groin. Her urine test shows blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and the diagnosis is ureteric colic. The patient has a history of asthma and cannot take NSAIDs.
According to the current NICE guidelines, what is the recommended analgesic for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous paracetamol
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the groin or genital area in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
People experiencing renal or ureteric colic are usually restless and unable to find relief by lying still, which helps to distinguish this condition from peritonitis. They may have a history of previous episodes and may also present with fever and sweating if there is an associated urinary infection. Some individuals may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
In terms of pain management, the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which can be administered through various routes. If NSAIDs are contraindicated or not providing sufficient pain relief, intravenous paracetamol can be offered as an alternative. Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are contraindicated or not effective in relieving pain. Antispasmodics should not be given to individuals with suspected renal colic.
For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman comes in with one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and spreading to the groin. Her urine test shows blood. She has a history of kidney stones and says that the pain feels similar to previous episodes. She describes the pain as less intense this time, but still uncomfortable. She also feels nauseous but hasn't vomited. She has no known allergies or sensitivities to medications.
According to NICE, which of the following pain relievers is recommended as the first choice for treating pain in kidney stone colic?Your Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the groin or genital area in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
People experiencing renal or ureteric colic are usually restless and unable to find relief by lying still, which helps to distinguish this condition from peritonitis. They may have a history of previous episodes and may also present with fever and sweating if there is an associated urinary infection. Some individuals may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
In terms of pain management, the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which can be administered through various routes. If NSAIDs are contraindicated or not providing sufficient pain relief, intravenous paracetamol can be offered as an alternative. Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are contraindicated or not effective in relieving pain. Antispasmodics should not be given to individuals with suspected renal colic.
For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been bothering him for the past five days. The pain has been increasing gradually and he has also noticed swelling in the affected testis. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because his symptoms have not improved. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. He has a history of chronic kidney disease, and his blood tests today show that his eGFR is 40 ml/minute. He has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Pivmecillinam
Explanation:For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.
If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
– Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose*The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with symptoms of fever and irritability. He also complains of lower abdominal pain and stinging during urination. A urine dipstick is performed on a clean catch urine, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. You diagnose him with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. His blood tests today show that his eGFR is 38 ml/minute. He has no history of other UTIs or infections requiring antibiotics in the past 12 months.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:For the treatment of young people under 16 years with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to obtain a urine sample before starting antibiotics. This sample can be tested using a dipstick or sent for culture and susceptibility testing. In cases where children under 5 present with fever along with lower UTI, it is recommended to follow the guidance outlined in the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.
Immediate antibiotic prescription should be offered to children and young people under 16 years with lower UTI. When making this prescription, it is important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. If a urine sample has been sent for culture and sensitivity testing, the choice of antibiotic should be reviewed once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, a narrow-spectrum antibiotic should be used whenever possible.
For non-pregnant women aged 16 years and under, the following antibiotics can be considered:
– Children under 3 months: It is recommended to refer to a pediatric specialist and treat with an intravenous antibiotic in line with the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.
– First-choice in children over 3 months: Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute) or Trimethoprim (if low risk of resistance*).
– Second-choice in children over 3 months (when there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable): Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute and not used as first-choice), Amoxicillin (only if culture results are available and susceptible), or Cefalexin.Please refer to the BNF for children for dosing information. It is important to consider the risk of resistance when choosing antibiotics. A lower risk of resistance may be more likely if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, if previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (but was not used), and in younger people in areas where local epidemiology data suggest low resistance. On the other hand, a higher risk of resistance may be more likely with recent antibiotic use and in older people in residential facilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria and undergoes a flexible cystoscopy. A diagnosis of bladder cancer is made following the investigation.
Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for developing bladder cancer in the United Kingdom?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Bladder cancer ranks as the seventh most prevalent form of cancer in the United Kingdom, with men outnumbering women by a ratio of 3 to 1. The primary factors that increase the risk of bladder cancer are advancing age and smoking. It is estimated that around 50% of bladder cancer cases are caused by smoking, which is believed to be influenced by the presence of aromatic amines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons that are eliminated through the kidneys. Smokers face a 2 to 6 times higher risk of developing bladder cancer compared to non-smokers.
Additional risk factors for bladder cancer include occupational exposure to aromatic amines found in dyes, paints, solvents, leather dust, combustion products, rubber, and textiles. Radiation therapy to the pelvic region is also considered a risk factor.
In developing nations, particularly in the Middle East, schistosomiasis is responsible for approximately 80% of bladder cancer cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)