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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon examination, he exhibits a prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs are heard over the ribs anteriorly and over the back. Additionally, he reports experiencing mild claudication with exertion and has feeble pulses in his lower extremities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition that can present with various symptoms. These may include headaches, nosebleeds, cold extremities, and claudication. However, hypertension is the most typical symptom. A mid-systolic murmur may also be present over the anterior part of the chest, back, spinous process, and a continuous murmur may also be heard.
One important radiographic finding in coarctation of the aorta is notching of the ribs. This is due to erosion by collaterals. It is important to diagnose coarctation of the aorta early on, as it can lead to serious complications such as heart failure, stroke, and aortic rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
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A 5-year-old girl presents to her general practitioner with fever and ear pain for the last 4 days. She is diagnosed as having left otitis media and was started on a course of oral amoxicillin. Over the next 24 hours, she develops high fevers and rigors, so presents to the Emergency Department. On examination, there is purulent fluid draining through the left tympanic membrane and she is also noted to have enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Further examination reveals left axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen and liver and multiple bruises on her extremities. Blood results are pending.
What is the most likely diagnosis to explain all her symptoms?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:The presence of hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphadenopathy, and new-onset bruising in a child raises the possibility of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which is the most common paediatric malignancy. This occurs when a lymphoid progenitor cell undergoes a mutation that leads to unregulated proliferation and clonal expansion. The child may present with bone marrow failure, anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. A definitive diagnosis is made through a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy. Treatment is with pegaspargase, which interferes with the growth of malignant blastic cells.
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infection is common in children and causes acute infectious mononucleosis or glandular fever. It presents with generalised malaise, sore throat, pharyngitis, headache, fever, nausea, abdominal pain, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of exudative pharyngitis and the presence of lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and new-onset bruising favour the diagnosis of a malignancy, rather than EBV infection.
Left otitis media with sepsis might cause cervical lymphadenopathy, but it would not explain the presence of generalised lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely, as there is no history of trauma, and the child is acutely unwell. Kawasaki’s disease is a childhood febrile vasculitis, but it is unlikely to cause hepatosplenomegaly. It is important to diagnose Kawasaki’s disease promptly, as it is associated with the formation of arterial aneurysms and a high morbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a regular diabetes check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, iron-deficiency anaemia, splenectomy, depression, and chronic kidney disease stage 5, which requires haemodialysis. He is currently taking ferrous sulphate, metformin, citalopram, and amoxicillin. The HBA1c result shows 38 mmol/mol, but the GP suspects that this reading may be inaccurate. What could be the possible reasons for this?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:Haemodialysis, sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and hereditary spherocytosis are conditions that can cause premature red blood cell death, leading to invalid results when measuring HbA1c levels. HbA1c is a form of haemoglobin that indicates the three-month average blood sugar level. Haemodialysis, in particular, can result in lower-than-expected HbA1c levels due to its reduction of red blood cell lifespan. Amoxicillin and citalopram are not known to affect HbA1c levels, while drugs like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can increase erythrocyte destruction and cause inappropriately low HbA1c levels. Iron-deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, can cause higher-than-expected HbA1c levels, making it crucial to treat the condition to accurately track diabetic control.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, we can calculate the average plasma glucose level by multiplying HbA1c by 2 and subtracting 4.5. Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the maternity unit 3 days after delivering a healthy baby at 39 weeks gestation. She had a normal third stage of labour and has been experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding and brown discharge, with an estimated blood loss of 120 ml. The patient has a history of asthma.
On examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 92 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg. There is no abdominal tenderness and a pelvic and vaginal exam are unremarkable.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Admit and give intrauterine balloon tamponade
Correct Answer: Reassure and advise sanitary towel use
Explanation:After a vaginal delivery, the loss of blood exceeding 500 ml is referred to as postpartum haemorrhage.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man experiences persistent, intense chest pain that spreads to his left arm. Despite taking multiple antacid tablets, he finds no relief. He eventually seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department and is diagnosed with a heart attack. He is admitted to the hospital and stabilized before being discharged five days later.
About three weeks later, the man begins to experience a constant, burning sensation in his chest. He returns to the hospital, where a friction rub is detected during auscultation. Additionally, his heart sounds are muffled.
What is the most likely cause of this complication, given the man's medical history?Your Answer: Bacterial infection
Correct Answer: Autoimmune phenomenon
Explanation:Understanding Dressler Syndrome
Dressler syndrome is a condition that occurs several weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) and results in fibrinous pericarditis with fever and pleuropericardial chest pain. It is believed to be an autoimmune phenomenon, rather than a result of viral, bacterial, or fungal infections. While these types of infections can cause pericarditis, they are less likely in the context of a recent MI. Chlamydial infection, in particular, does not cause pericarditis. Understanding the underlying cause of pericarditis is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of Dressler syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise, loss of appetite, and jaundice. He has no significant medical history and denies excessive alcohol consumption. Upon investigation, his serum total bilirubin is 71 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 195 U/L (5-35), and serum alkaline phosphatase is 100 U/L (45-105). His serum IgM antihepatitis A is negative, but serum IgG antihepatitis A is positive. Additionally, his serum hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is positive, but serum antibody to hepatitis C is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hepatitis and Leptospirosis
Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc antibodies. On the other hand, acute hepatitis A can be diagnosed by positive IgM anti-HAV antibodies, while the presence of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates that the illness is not caused by HAV. Acute hepatitis C is usually asymptomatic, but can be diagnosed through the demonstration of anti-HCV antibodies or HCV RNA. Meanwhile, acute hepatitis E is characterized by a more pronounced elevation of alkaline phosphatase and can be diagnosed through the presence of serum IgM anti-HEV antibodies.
Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is caused by the spirochaete Leptospira and can cause acute hepatitis. It is transmitted through direct contact with infected soil, water, or urine, and can enter the body through skin abrasions or cuts. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is done through an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Leptospira IgM antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sixth nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy
Explanation:Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms
Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:
Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).
Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.
Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.
Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).
Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains of a lump in the middle of his abdomen. On examination, you note a mass arising from the site of surgical incision, which is reducible and reproducible when the patient coughs.
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of an incisional hernia?Your Answer: Wound infection
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Incisional Hernia Development
An infected wound can increase the risk of developing an incisional hernia due to poor wound healing and susceptibility to abdominal content herniation. Increasing age is also a risk factor, likely due to delayed wound healing and reduced collagen synthesis. However, being tall and thin does not increase the risk, while obesity can increase abdominal pressure and lead to herniation. A sedentary lifestyle does not appear to be associated with incisional hernias, but smoking and nutritional deficiencies can increase the risk. Post-operative vomiting, not nausea alone, can cause episodic increases in abdominal pressure and increase the risk of herniation. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the development of incisional hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds on auscultation. Echocardiogram confirms a pericardial effusion.
At which of the following sites does this effusion occur?Your Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium
Explanation:Understanding the Site of Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. To understand the site of pericardial effusion, it is important to know the layers of the pericardium.
The pericardium has three layers: the fibrous pericardium, the parietal pericardium, and the visceral pericardium. The pericardial fluid is located in between the visceral and parietal pericardium, which is the site where a pericardial effusion occurs.
It is important to note that pericardial effusion does not occur between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium, the visceral pericardium and the myocardium, the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura, or the fibrous pericardium and the central tendon of the diaphragm.
In summary, pericardial effusion occurs at the site where pericardial fluid is normally produced – between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium. Understanding the site of pericardial effusion is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man is admitted to a medical ward for treatment of an abscess in his leg. He has a history of intravenous heroin use and reports that he is beginning to experience symptoms of opioid withdrawal. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Ask her how much heroin she uses per day and arrange for her to receive methadone syrup equivalent to this divided into four doses per day
Correct Answer: Give her 60 mg of codeine phosphate and wait 30 minutes to determine its effect
Explanation:Managing Acute Opioid Withdrawal in Heroin Users
Managing acute opioid withdrawal in patients who are actively using heroin can be challenging. However, a good way to manage this is by titrating codeine to effect. Codeine can be given in doses of 30-60 mg and repeated every 30 minutes until the symptoms begin to subside. It is important to note that most trusts will have a local policy on this matter.
If a patient normally takes methadone, it is crucial to contact their dispensing pharmacy to confirm their dose before administering codeine. Codeine can be used in the meantime to alleviate symptoms of opioid withdrawal. By following this approach, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute opioid withdrawal in heroin users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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