-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).
Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has experienced this three times, but reports no pain, discharge, or bleeding between periods. She is currently taking the combined contraceptive pill and is sexually active with a consistent partner. The patient has never been pregnant and is anxious due to her family history of endometrial cancer in her grandmother. During the examination, the GP observes a small area of redness surrounding the cervical os. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlamydia infection
Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill use
Explanation:The likelihood of cervical ectropion is higher in individuals who take the COCP due to increased levels of oestrogen. Based on the patient’s medical history and examination results, cervical ectropion appears to be the most probable diagnosis. This condition is more prevalent during puberty, pregnancy, and while taking the pill. Endometrial cancer is improbable in a young person, and the presence of cervical ectropion on examination supports this straightforward diagnosis. Although chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis, the patient’s sexual history does not suggest this diagnosis, and the pill remains the most likely cause. It is recommended to undergo STI screenings annually.
Understanding Cervical Ectropion
Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.
Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old traveller returns from a long period of travelling in Indonesia. He complains of persistent fever and night sweats, has lost weight and now feels a dull right upper quadrant pain. On further questioning, he admits to having lived very cheaply during his trip and to eating meat from street vendors that may have been undercooked. On examination, he is mildly jaundiced.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 98 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 57 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 186 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 165 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 55 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
An abdominal ultrasound scan shows a cystic mass within the right lobe of the liver.
Which of the following represents the most effective treatment for this man?Your Answer: Ultrasound-guided drainage and metronidazole po
Correct Answer: Drainage and albendazole po
Explanation:Treatment Options for Liver Cysts: Hydatid Disease and Amoebic Liver Abscess
Hydatid disease is a parasitic infection that can occur from consuming undercooked meat sold by street vendors. The majority of cysts occur in the liver, with the remaining cysts isolated to other areas of the body. The preferred treatment is drainage, either surgically or radiologically, along with the use of albendazole to reduce the risk of recurrence. Amoebic liver abscess is a potential differential diagnosis, but ultrasound findings can differentiate between the two. Metronidazole is used to manage amoebic liver cysts, while cefuroxime is used for pyogenic bacterial liver abscess. Definitive management for hydatid disease requires drainage of fluid. For amoebic liver abscess, metronidazole with or without drainage under ultrasound is the preferred treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his sister after he spent all of his savings on buying expensive gifts for strangers on the street, claiming that he is here to spread love and happiness. He insists that he is the chosen one to bring joy to the world and will do anything to achieve it. He is very restless, and the doctor cannot communicate with him to gather a medical history. His sister confirms that he has a known diagnosis of bipolar disorder and is currently on medication. For the past few days, the patient has not slept much and has been up all night planning his mission to spread love. There is no evidence of any overdose, but his sister says that he may have missed his medication while on a trip last week. The doctor decides to keep the patient in the hospital under a Section until tomorrow morning when an approved mental health professional can evaluate him.
For how long can the patient be detained under the Section used?Your Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK
In the UK, there are several time limits for mental health detention that healthcare professionals must adhere to. These time limits vary depending on the type of detention and the circumstances of the patient. Here are the time limits for mental health detention in the UK:
Section 5(2): 72 hours
A doctor can use Section 5(2) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of 72 hours. This cannot be extended, so an approved mental health professional should assess the patient as soon as possible to decide if the patient needs to be detained under Section 2 or 3.Section 5(4): 6 hours
Mental health or learning disability nurses can use Section 5(4) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This cannot be extended, so arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.Section 3: 6 months initially, renewable for one year at a time
Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for six months. It can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal. During the first six months, patients can only be treated against their will in the first three months. For the next three months, the patient can only be treated after an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ gives their approval for the treatment.Section 2: 28 days
Approved mental health professionals can use Section 2 to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days. It cannot be extended, so if a longer stay is required for treatment, Section 3 needs to be applied for.Section 3 Renewal: one year
Section 3 can be renewed for a second time, after it has been renewed for a first time for six months after an initial six months upon application of the Section. The renewal is for one year at a time.Understanding Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 has a fasting blood sugar of 10 mmol/l and 11.7 mmol/l on two separate occasions. Her family history includes diabetes mellitus in her father and maternal uncle. Despite attempting to lose weight through diet and exercise, she has been unsuccessful in achieving a balanced diet. She is open to taking either orlistat or an anorexigenic agent. Further investigation reveals that her blood insulin level tends to be relatively high.
What is the most likely hormonal change to be observed in this patient?Your Answer: Reduced leptin
Correct Answer: Reduced adiponectin
Explanation:Endocrine Factors Predisposing to Type II Diabetes Mellitus
Type II diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by insulin resistance and high blood sugar levels. Several endocrine factors can predispose individuals to this condition. In obese patients with a positive family history of diabetes, adiponectin levels are reduced. Adiponectin is a hormone secreted by adipocytes that plays a role in glucose metabolism. In contrast, leptin levels are increased in these patients and usually correlate with the degree of insulin resistance. Growth hormone levels are increased in acromegaly, which can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland, can cause increased epinephrine levels and predispose individuals to diabetes. Similarly, Cushing syndrome, a condition characterized by increased cortisol levels, can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Understanding these endocrine factors can help clinicians identify individuals at risk for type II diabetes and implement appropriate preventive measures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is worried about her chances of developing osteoporosis, as her mother and sister experienced pelvic fractures due to osteoporosis after menopause. What is the most effective test to determine her likelihood of developing osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a common condition among postmenopausal women, with a high risk of fractures. Genetic predisposition, lack of exercise, and immobility are some of the contributing factors. To diagnose osteoporosis, several diagnostic tests are available.
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a commonly used test to measure bone density. It compares the patient’s bone density with that of their peer group to estimate the risk of fractures. The T-score and Z-score are used to interpret the results. A T-score higher than −1 is normal, between −1 and −2.5 is osteopenia, and below −2.5 is osteoporotic. A Z-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of individuals of the same sex, age, weight, and ethnicity.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis may suggest osteopenia, but a DEXA scan is needed for a diagnosis. Pelvic X-ray is used to detect pelvic fractures. Serum alkaline phosphatase is normal in osteoporosis patients, while serum calcium is useful in ruling out alternative diagnoses.
In conclusion, early diagnosis of osteoporosis is crucial to prevent fractures and improve quality of life. DEXA scan is the gold standard for measuring bone density, while other tests may be used to rule out alternative diagnoses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of dull chest ache and shortness of breath, five days after being discharged from thoracic surgery. Upon examination, a chest x-ray shows a white-out on the left side, indicating a large pleural effusion. Further testing reveals that the effusion is chyle. What is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Lymphomatous effusion
Correct Answer: Thoracic duct damage
Explanation:The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Function
The thoracic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel in the body, responsible for conveying most of the lymph from the body to the venous system. It is a thin, valved, tubular structure that measures 2-3 mm in diameter. The duct originates from the chyle cistern in the abdomen and ascends through the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, passing between the thoracic aorta and azygous vein in the posterior mediastinal cavity. At the level of T4-T6 vertebrae, it crosses from the right to the left side of the chest and ascends into the superior mediastinum. The thoracic duct receives branches from the middle and upper intercostal spaces of both sides, as well as from posterior mediastinal structures. Near its termination, it receives the left jugular, left subclavian, and left bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunks before opening into the angle of junction of the left subclavian vein and left internal jugular vein.
Due to its thin-walled and dull white appearance, the thoracic duct can be difficult to identify and is vulnerable to inadvertent damage during investigative or surgical treatment involving the posterior mediastinum. Unlike the circulatory system, the lymphatic system has no central pump organ and instead relies on muscular movement, breathing, and gravity to move lymph fluid around the body. As a result, it can take up to five to seven days for presentations of thoracic duct damage to become apparent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?
Your Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture
Explanation:Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results
Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.
When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.
Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.
In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man has been referred to the rheumatology clinic by his GP due to suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient complains of symmetrical arthralgia affecting the MCP and PIP joints for the past 3 months, along with mouth ulcers and photosensitivity. Which of the following medical histories would support a diagnosis of SLE?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The revised ARA criteria for the classification of lupus includes serositis (pleuritis or pericarditis) as a defining feature. Pericarditis is the most prevalent cardiac manifestation of SLE and is also included in the classification criteria of the British Society for Rheumatology 2018 guidelines for SLE. It is important to note that the other options are not part of these criteria, which are not comprehensive but are still considered a valuable diagnostic aid.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: A 2-week trial of fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients
Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a paracetamol overdose. He reports taking 40 tablets in the last 3 hours and has presented to the hospital within 10 minutes of ingesting the last tablet. He weighs 70kg. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Perform gastric lavage immediately
Correct Answer: Give him activated charcoal and start him on acetylcysteine immediately
Explanation:If there is uncertainty about the time of overdose but it could be toxic, if the overdose was staggered over a period of more than an hour, if the plasma-paracetamol level is above the treatment line on the treatment graph, or if the overdose was taken 8-36 hours before presenting, the BNF recommends starting acetylcysteine immediately. In this case, since the second bullet point is true, there is no need to wait for plasma-paracetamol levels to come back from the lab, although it may still be helpful to take them before beginning treatment. Additionally, the BNF warns that doses as low as 150 mg/kg within 24 hours can be fatal, and in this case, the individual has taken 16g of paracetamol, which equates to 246 mg/kg for their weight of 65 kg.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake for 4 days and is convinced that she will become the next big pop star by recording 3 albums simultaneously. When asked about her emotions, she immediately talks about her music projects, providing intricate details about each album, her plans for distribution, and her future as a famous musician. She then mentions that her mood has been fantastic because of these topics. When the conversation shifts, she continues to respond in a similar fashion. What term best describes this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Perseveration
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality is the appropriate term to describe this patient’s response. They provide excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually answering the question about their mood. Flight of ideas, Knight’s move, and perseveration are not applicable in this case as the patient eventually returns to the original topic and follows along with subsequent topic changes.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
In the context of biostatistics, which statement accurately describes type I error in relation to the clinical trial evaluating the efficacy of a new HPV vaccine compared to the current vaccine?
Your Answer: Can also be referred to as a false-negative error
Correct Answer: Occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously
Explanation:Understanding Type I and Type II Errors in Statistical Analysis
In statistical analysis, errors can occur when interpreting data. Type I errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously, leading to the incorrect conclusion that something is true when it is not. This is also known as a false-positive error or alpha error. On the other hand, type II errors occur when an investigator mistakenly concludes that there is no difference between two study populations when a difference actually exists. This is also referred to as a false-negative error or beta error, represented by the Greek letter beta.
The probability of a type I error decreases as the significance level decreases, while the probability of a type II error increases. The cut-off points set for a particular test determine the magnitudes of both type I and type II errors. Therefore, decreasing the significance level increases the chance of a type I error being made, but decreases the chance of a type II error occurring, and vice versa.
Understanding these types of errors is crucial in statistical analysis to ensure accurate conclusions are drawn from the data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man presents to the clinic after an insurance medical. He was noted to have an abnormal alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Past history includes obesity, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, which he manages with diet control. He denies any significant alcohol intake. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 31.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 394 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmo/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 85 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 95 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 6.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglycerides 3.8 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Ultrasound of liver Increase in echogenicity
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Alcohol-related cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Explanation:Understanding Liver Diseases: NAFLD, Viral Hepatitis, Alcohol-related Cirrhosis, Wilson’s Disease, and Haemochromatosis
Liver diseases can have various causes and presentations. One of the most common is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is closely associated with obesity, hypertension, diabetes, and dyslipidaemia. NAFLD is often asymptomatic, but some patients may experience tiredness or epigastric fullness. Weight loss is the primary treatment, although glitazones have shown promising results in improving liver function.
Viral hepatitis is another common liver disease, but there are no indicators of it in this patient’s history. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is often caused by excessive alcohol intake, but this patient denies alcohol consumption, making NAFLD a more likely diagnosis.
Wilson’s disease typically presents with neuropsychiatric symptoms or signs, and the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings is a key diagnostic feature. Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, results from iron overload and is often associated with diabetes mellitus and bronzing of the skin.
Understanding the different types of liver diseases and their presentations is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain and obstructive jaundice. Upon ultrasound examination, gallstones are detected. Where is the probable location of the gallstones that is causing the obstructive jaundice?
Your Answer: In the common bile duct
Explanation:The Biliary Tract and Obstructive Jaundice
The biliary tract is responsible for the production, storage, and transportation of bile in the body. Bile is produced by hepatocytes in the liver and flows into bile canaliculi, which then join to form interlobular biliary ducts and bile ducts. The right and left hepatic ducts leave each lobe of the liver and join to form the common hepatic duct. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is transported to the common bile duct through the cystic duct. The common bile duct opens into the duodenum, joined by the pancreatic duct through a common channel at the ampulla of Vater. Obstruction of bile flow at any point within the biliary tract distal to the bile canaliculi can lead to obstructive jaundice. This condition is characterized by jaundice of skin and mucous membranes, darker urine, pale stool, and pruritus. Common causes of obstruction include gallstones, cholangiocarcinoma, and pancreatic cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) wants to participate in the NHS screening programme for AAA. He reports no recent abdominal or back pain, has no chronic medical conditions, is not taking any long-term medications, has never smoked, and has no family history of AAA. An aortic ultrasound is performed and shows an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.7 cm. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Admit him to the emergency department immediately
Correct Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 2 weeks
Explanation:Individuals who have an abdominal aorta diameter measuring 5.5 cm or more should receive an appointment with a vascular specialist within 14 days of being diagnosed. Those with an abdominal aorta diameter ranging from 3 cm to 5.4 cm should be referred to a regional vascular service and seen within 12 weeks of diagnosis. For individuals with an abdominal aorta diameter of 3 cm to 4.4 cm, a repeat scan should be conducted annually. As the patient is in good health, hospitalization is not necessary.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
possible left upper lobe fibrosis
Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Rheumatoid lung disease
Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Discharge with 5 days of oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day assessment
Explanation:If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.
Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.
Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.
Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.
It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the lithotomy position. To palpate the patient’s uterus, the index and middle fingers of the right hand are placed inside the vagina, while the fingers and palm of the left hand are used to palpate the abdomen suprapubically. While palpating the patient’s abdomen with her left hand, the doctor feels a bony structure in the lower midline.
Which one of the following bony structures is the doctor most likely to feel with the palm of her left hand?Your Answer: Pubis
Explanation:Anatomy of the Pelvis: Palpable Bones and Structures
The pelvis is a complex structure composed of several bones and joints. In this scenario, a doctor is examining a patient and can feel a specific bone. Let’s explore the different bones and structures of the pelvis and determine which one the doctor may be palpating.
Pubis:
The pubis is one of the three bones that make up the os coxa, along with the ilium and ischium. It is the most anterior of the three and extends medially and anteriorly, meeting with the opposite pubis to form the pubic symphysis. Given the position of the doctor’s hand, it is likely that they are feeling the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones.Coccyx:
The coccyx is the lowest part of the vertebral column and is located inferior to the sacrum. It is composed of 3-5 fused vertebrae and is a posterior structure, making it unlikely to be palpable in this scenario.Ilium:
The ilium is the most superior of the three bones that make up the os coxa. It is a lateral bone and would not be near the position of the doctor’s palm in this scenario.Sacrum:
The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and forms the posterior aspect of the pelvis. It is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae and articulates with the iliac bones via the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Although it is found in the midline, it is a posterior structure and would not be palpable.Ischium:
The ischium forms the posteroinferior part of the os coxa. Due to its position, it is not palpable in this scenario.In conclusion, the doctor is most likely palpating the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones during the examination. Understanding the anatomy of the pelvis and its structures is important for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency
Correct Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Common Bleeding Disorders in Children
Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.
Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.
Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the cranial region reveals a tumour at the cerebellopontine angle. A working diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is made. In light of the progressive symptoms, the surgeon plans to remove the tumour.
With regard to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the following is correct?Your Answer: The vestibulocochlear nerve provides the efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani
Correct Answer: Vestibular fibres pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle
Explanation:Anatomy of the Vestibulocochlear Nerve
The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for carrying special sensory afferent fibers from the inner ear. It is composed of two portions: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve. The vestibular fibers pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, while the cochlear fibers pass to the cochlear nuclear complex, located across the junction between the pons and medulla.
Acoustic neuromas, which are tumors that commonly arise from the vestibular portion of the nerve, are also known as vestibular schwannomas. The efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani, a muscle in the middle ear, is provided by the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve.
The vestibulocochlear nerve enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction, lateral to the facial nerve. It then passes into the temporal bone via the internal auditory meatus, along with the facial nerve. It does not exit the cranium through the jugular foramen, which is where the ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves exit. Understanding the anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating disorders related to hearing and balance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old construction worker is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious at his worksite by his colleagues. He was found with an empty bottle of an unknown substance. There is no past medical history of note and he takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, he is disoriented and restless with a GCS of 10. His eyes and nose are watering and there is dried vomitus around his mouth. There is reduced air entry bilaterally with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and there is evidence of muscle fasciculations.
Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following examination findings is most likely to be present?Your Answer: Dilated pupils
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is often caused by insecticides. As a farmer, the patient may have been exposed to these substances. Organophosphates work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, leading to excessive muscarinic and nicotinic stimulation. Symptoms may include salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, hypotension, bradycardia, and muscle fasciculations. Dilated pupils are not a common feature of organophosphate poisoning, as they indicate sympathetic stimulation. Similarly, a dry mouth is not typically associated with this type of poisoning. Hypotension, which is a sign of parasympathetic stimulation, is more commonly seen in organophosphate poisoning, while hypertension is a feature of sympathetic stimulation.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman with a history of Von Willebrand disease underwent a left knee arthroscopy and screw removal with epidural anesthesia. The epidural space was identified at L3-L4 and local anesthetic was administered. During the operation, the patient experienced sensory block to temperature up to the T10 dermatome. After the procedure, the patient was comfortable and the block resolved completely after 2 hours. However, 2 hours later, the patient complained of severe back pain and exhibited 3/5 power in all muscle groups of the right leg, absent right patellar reflex, and reduced sensation to light touch in the right leg.
What complication of epidural anesthesia is likely to be demonstrated in this case?Your Answer: Direct spinal cord injury from the procedure
Correct Answer: Spinal epidural haematoma
Explanation:One potential complication of epidural anesthesia is the development of a spinal epidural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates in the spinal epidural space and compresses the spinal cord. The symptoms experienced by the patient will depend on the location of the hematoma, but typically include a combination of severe back pain and neurological deficits. The patient’s coagulopathy, in this case Von-Willebrand disease, increases the risk of developing this complication.
Local anesthetic toxicity is another potential complication, which occurs when the anesthetic is accidentally injected into a blood vessel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including numbness around the mouth, restlessness, tinnitus, shivering, muscle twitching, and convulsions. However, none of these symptoms are present in this case.
Direct spinal cord injury would typically result in immediate symptoms during the procedure, which is not the case here.
Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that is often preceded by an infection. It typically presents with sensory symptoms that precede motor symptoms.
While spinal epidural abscess is a possibility, symptoms usually develop over a longer period of time. Given the patient’s coagulopathy, a hematoma is the most likely explanation for their symptoms.
Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.
For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.
Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.
Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, she is stable and has a temperature of 37.8 °C. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Urinalysis reveals the presence of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC), but no nitrites. What is the most suitable subsequent test?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG))
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age requires a thorough diagnostic workup to rule out gynaecological emergencies such as ectopic pregnancy. The following diagnostic tests should be considered:
1. Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG)): This test should be the first step in the diagnostic workup to rule out ectopic pregnancy. A positive result requires urgent referral to the gynaecological team.
2. Full blood count: This test may indicate an ongoing infective process or other pathology, but a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
3. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis: Imaging may be useful in determining the cause of the pain, but a pregnancy test should be done first before considering imaging studies.
4. Urine culture and sensitivity: This test may be useful if a urinary tract infection and possible pyelonephritis are considered, but an ectopic pregnancy has to be ruled out first.
5. Erect chest X-ray: This test can show free air under the diaphragm, indicating a ruptured viscus and a surgical emergency. However, a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
In conclusion, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing age, with a pregnancy test being the first step to rule out gynaecological emergencies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometrial polyps
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:
Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.
Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.
Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.
Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.
Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.
Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumour Markers: An Overview
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:
CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.
AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.
CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.
CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.
CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus
Explanation:The Role of Nerves in Voice Production
The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.
The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.
Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Adherence therapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old infant presents with feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, and episodes of bluish pale skin during crying or feeding. On examination, a harsh systolic ejection murmur is heard over the pulmonic area and left sternal border. A chest radiograph during birth was normal. A second radiograph at presentation shows a boot-shaped heart.
What is the most likely embryological mechanism responsible for the development of this condition?Your Answer: Incomplete absorption of the sinus venosus into the right atrium
Correct Answer: Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum
Explanation:Mechanisms of Congenital Heart Defects
Congenital heart defects can arise from various mechanisms during fetal development. Understanding these mechanisms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.
Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum is responsible for the characteristic boot-shaped heart seen in tetralogy of Fallot. This condition is characterized by pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta.
Transposition of the great vessels occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during development. Persistent truncus arteriosus results from the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to divide.
Infundibular stenosis is caused by underdevelopment of the conus arteriosus of the right ventricle. Sinus venosus atrial septal defects arise from incomplete absorption of the sinus venosus into the right atrium.
By understanding the mechanisms behind these congenital heart defects, healthcare professionals can provide better care for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman attends for her cervical smear as per the NHS cervical screening programme. She is found to have low-grade dyskaryosis. The laboratory performed a reflex high-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV) test on the cytology sample. The HPV sample returned as negative.
When should the patient have a repeat cervical smear?Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: Five years
Explanation:Appropriate Screening Interval for Women with Low-Grade Dyskaryosis and Negative HPV Testing
Women with low-grade dyskaryosis and negative HPV testing should return to the screening program. The appropriate screening interval for a 50-year-old patient is every five years. This is because the majority of patients with HPV-negative, low-grade dyskaryosis revert to normal epithelium and do not require further investigation with colposcopy. It is important to note that the screening interval for patients between 25 and 49 years is every three years. Shorter intervals, such as three months, six months, or even one year, are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary testing and anxiety for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)