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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden thunderclap headache...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden thunderclap headache in the occipital area and photophobia. The CT scan of the head reveals hyper-attenuation around the circle of Willis, within the subarachnoid space. What is the probable diagnosis, and which meningeal layer is the hemorrhage located between, apart from the arachnoid mater?

      Your Answer: Pia mater

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges. A sudden onset headache at the back of the head, described as thunderclap in nature, is a classic symptom of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. This type of bleeding occurs in the subarachnoid space, which is located between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. The pia mater is directly attached to the brain and spinal cord.

      The answer bone is incorrect because the bleed occurs between the pia mater and arachnoid mater, not in the bone. Bone is not a meningeal layer.

      The answer brain is also incorrect because the bleed occurs above the pia mater and below the arachnoid mater, in the subarachnoid space. The brain is located below the pia mater and is not directly involved in the bleed. The brain is also not a meningeal layer.

      The answer dura mater is incorrect because it is the thick outermost layer of the meninges, not the innermost layer where the bleed occurs.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      33.5
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman with an 8-month-old baby is complaining of pain on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with an 8-month-old baby is complaining of pain on the radial side of her wrist. She reports that the pain is most severe when she is using her hand to wring clothes or lift objects. Upon examination, there is no visible swelling, but the Finkelstein's test is positive, leading to a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis. Can you identify the nerve that innervates the two muscle tendons affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Hand Nerve Innervation

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, also known as mothers wrist, is a condition with an unknown cause, but some experts believe it may be due to repetitive movements like wringing clothes. The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that provides innervation to the flexor pollicis longus. On the other hand, the recurrent branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar eminence muscles, which are responsible for flexing and opposing the thumb. These muscles include the flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis.

      In contrast, the musculocutaneous nerve does not play a role in thumb movement. Instead, it provides motor supply to the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, which cause flexion at the elbow joint. Lastly, the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles and lateral two lumbricals of the small muscles of the hand. the innervation of the hand nerves is crucial in diagnosing and treating various hand conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      85.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old man attempts suicide by cutting the posterolateral aspect of his wrist...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man attempts suicide by cutting the posterolateral aspect of his wrist with a knife. Upon arrival at the emergency department, examination reveals a wound situated over the lateral aspect of the extensor retinaculum, which remains intact. What structure is most vulnerable to injury in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Radial artery

      Correct Answer: Superficial branch of the radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor retinaculum laceration site poses the highest risk of injury to the superficial branch of the radial nerve, which runs above it. Meanwhile, the dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve and artery are situated medially but also pass above the extensor retinaculum.

      The Extensor Retinaculum and its Related Structures

      The extensor retinaculum is a thick layer of deep fascia that runs across the back of the wrist, holding the long extensor tendons in place. It attaches to the pisiform and triquetral bones medially and the end of the radius laterally. The retinaculum has six compartments that contain the extensor muscle tendons, each with its own synovial sheath.

      Several structures are related to the extensor retinaculum. Superficial to the retinaculum are the basilic and cephalic veins, the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve, and the superficial branch of the radial nerve. Deep to the retinaculum are the tendons of the extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digiti minimi, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis.

      The radial artery also passes between the lateral collateral ligament of the wrist joint and the tendons of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. Understanding the topography of these structures is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      34.8
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  • Question 4 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the pediatrician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the pediatrician with concerns about her health.

      He has observed his daughter, while playing at home, suddenly become motionless and stare off into the distance while repeatedly smacking her lips. She does not respond to his voice or touch until she suddenly returns to normal after a minute or so. Following these episodes, she often has difficulty speaking clearly. The father is worried that his daughter may have epilepsy, as he knows someone whose child has the condition.

      If the daughter has epilepsy, which specific area of the brain is likely affected?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe seizures are often associated with lip smacking and postictal dysphasia, which are localizing features. These seizures may also involve hallucinations and a feeling of déjà vu. In contrast, focal seizures of the occipital lobe typically cause visual disturbances, while seizures of the parietal lobe may result in peripheral paraesthesia.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      118.3
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department after falling two days ago....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department after falling two days ago. She is now experiencing double vision and haziness in her right eye. She tripped on a carpet in her living room and hit her head, but did not lose consciousness. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica, stable angina, bilateral cataract surgeries, and one previous transient ischaemic attack. There is no family history of genetic conditions.

      During the examination, she is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. No peripheral focal neurology is found, and Romberg's test is negative. Her right eye has reduced visual acuity, but her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and her eye movements are unimpaired. The conjunctiva is not injected, and ophthalmoscopy shows normal visualization of the retina on the left and difficulty on the right due to light reflecting from behind the iris.

      Blood tests reveal an ESR of 34mm/h (1-40mm/h) and CRP of 3 mg/L (<5 mg/L). What is the most likely cause of her visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Correct Answer: Dislocated intraocular lens (IOL)

      Explanation:

      Inherited connective tissue disorders can lead to natural lens dislocation, while replacement lenses may become dislodged after cataract surgery. Temporal arteritis is a rare condition that affects small to medium arteries and is typically accompanied by a headache, blurred vision, and jaw claudication. Transient ischaemic attacks cause focal neurology and resolve within 24 hours. Although rare, complications of cataract surgery can include infection, damage to the capsule, posterior cataract formation, and glaucoma. Lens dislocation can occur due to trauma, uveitis, previous vitreoretinal surgery, or congenital connective tissue disorders such as Marfan’s syndrome. Acute angle-closure crisis, also known as acute glaucoma, presents with a red, painful eye with mid-dilated and poorly reactive pupils.

      Causes of Lens Dislocation

      Lens dislocation can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common causes is Marfan’s syndrome, which causes the lens to dislocate upwards. Another cause is homocystinuria, which leads to the lens dislocating downwards. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is also a contributing factor to lens dislocation. Trauma, uveal tumors, and autosomal recessive ectopia lentis are other causes of lens dislocation. It is important to identify the underlying cause of lens dislocation to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      152.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John,...

    Correct

    • After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John, a 25-year-old male, visits the clinic to have it removed. During the examination, it is observed that his left foot is in a plantar flexed position, indicating foot drop. Which nerve is typically impacted, resulting in foot drop?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Footdrop, which is impaired dorsiflexion of the ankle, can be caused by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves after wrapping around the neck of the fibula. The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for innervating muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot, such as the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. Damage to the common or deep peroneal nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to unopposed plantar flexion of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, on the other hand, innervates muscles that evert the foot. Other nerves that innervate muscles in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which controls hip flexion and knee extension, the tibial nerve, which mainly controls plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, and the obturator nerve, which mainly controls thigh adduction.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      29.9
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  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old dancer undergoes a thyroidectomy due to concerns about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old dancer undergoes a thyroidectomy due to concerns about the appearance of her goitre. Following the surgery, she is informed that there was a laceration of the superior laryngeal nerve, which may affect her ability to produce higher pitches in her voice. She is referred for speech therapy.

      What counseling should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer: Nerve lacerations usually have a good recovery but it is slow

      Correct Answer: Nerve lacerations have a poor recovery, even with surgical nerve repair

      Explanation:

      The recovery of nerve lacerations is challenging due to the intricate nature of the neuronal system. However, there is a possibility of a better recovery if the injury is small, does not cause nerve stretching, requires a short nerve graft, and the patient is young and medically fit. It is worth noting that repaired nerves can regain sensory function similar to their pre-injury level.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.2
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old male patient complains of weakness and numbness in his right hand...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient complains of weakness and numbness in his right hand following a recent forearm injury. During the examination, it is observed that the ring and little fingers on his right hand are extended at the metacarpophalangeal joint and flexed at the interphalangeal joint. The patient also experiences a loss of sensation in the area of the right ring and little fingers, and Froment's sign is positive. Which nerve is likely to be damaged in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints exhibit a distinct presentation when the intrinsic muscles of the hand (specifically the lumbricals) are weakened. This condition is known as ‘ulnar claw hand’ since the ulnar nerve supplies the nerve impulses to the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Additionally, this nerve provides sensation to the medial two and a half fingers on both the palmar and dorsal surfaces. Trauma to the elbow can expose the ulnar nerve at this location.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      24.5
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  • Question 9 - John Smith, a 81-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department after falling down...

    Correct

    • John Smith, a 81-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department after falling down a few steps. He complains of 7/10 groin pain and is administered pain relief.

      During the assessment, the doctor conducts a neurovascular examination and observes decreased sensation in the right medial thigh, indicating a possible nerve injury.

      Further investigations reveal a pubic rami fracture.

      Which nerve is likely to be affected in this situation, and which muscle compartment of the thigh does it supply?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve, ADductor compartment of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The adductor compartment of the thigh is innervated by the obturator nerve, which enters the thigh through the obturator canal after running laterally along the pelvic wall towards the obturator foramen. The muscles innervated by the obturator nerve include the adductor brevis, adductor longus, adductor magnus, gracilis, and obturator externus. The sciatic nerve also innervates the adductor magnus, while the femoral nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh and the sciatic nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      43.3
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  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her GP complaining of intense facial pain. The pain lasts only a few seconds but is unbearable and worsens with exposure to cold air and touch.

      Upon examination, there are no focal neurological signs. However, a few minutes after the examination, she experiences severe pain on her right cheek, which she describes as always being over her right zygoma.

      Through which opening in the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Foramen rotundum, as the maxillary nerve passes through this foramen to exit the skull. This nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the upper teeth, gums, and palate. The patient’s trigeminal neuralgia is caused by irritation of the right-sided maxillary nerve.

      Cribriform plate is not the correct answer, as this area of the skull is where the olfactory nerve passes through to enable the sense of smell.

      Foramen ovale is also not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the mandibular nerve exits the skull to provide sensation to the lower face.

      Jugular foramen is not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the accessory nerve passes through to innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      39.2
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