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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and weight gain over the past year. The GP finds nil of note on examination, but decides to carry out some blood tests, the results of which are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 263 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 102 fl 76–98 fl
      Urea and electrolytes normal, liver function tests (LFTs) normal; thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.9 miu/l, free T4 5 pmol/l.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Macrocytosis usually indicates coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Menorrhagia may be a feature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency).

      Diagnosis of hypothyroidism involves measuring levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) in the blood. A high TSH level and a low T4 level indicate hypothyroidism. Menorrhagia may be a feature of the condition.

      Treatment involves initiating and titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and the patient’s signs and symptoms have resolved. The lowest dose of levothyroxine possible to maintain this should be used. If the patient has a goitre, nodule, or changes of the thyroid gland, the patient is suspected to have subacute thyroiditis, or if an associated endocrine disease is suspected, specialist referral is indicated.

      While macrocytosis may indicate coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency, it is not always present in hypothyroidism. Anaemia is a frequent occurrence in thyroid disease, which is most commonly normocytic, but can also be macrocytic or microcytic.

      Thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies commonly occur in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism. Similarly, thyroid eye disease is a common feature in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of hypothyroidism is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus for five years presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus for five years presents with restricted myocardial dysfunction and skin pigmentation. His ALT level is elevated at 153 IU/L. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum copper content

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that results in excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs such as the liver, pancreas, heart, endocrine glands, and joints. This condition is characterized by extremely high levels of ferritin (>500) and transferrin saturation. The transferrin saturation test measures the amount of iron bound to the protein that carries iron in the blood, while the total iron binding capacity (TIBC) test determines how well the blood can transport iron. The serum ferritin test, on the other hand, shows the level of iron in the liver.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, a test to detect the HFE mutation is usually conducted. If the mutation is not present, then hereditary haemochromatosis is not the cause of the iron build-up. It is important to note that other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, hepatitis B infection, and autoimmune hepatitis may also cause raised ferritin levels, but they do not result in myocardial dysfunction or skin pigmentation.

      In summary, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed through a combination of tests, including the HFE mutation test, transferrin saturation test, TIBC test, and serum ferritin test. It is important to differentiate haemochromatosis from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He is currently taking ramipril, pioglitazone, metformin, simvastatin, and acarbose. During previous examinations, he has been found to have microalbuminuria and a decreasing eGFR. His most recent eGFR measurement was 29 ml/minute/1.73 m2. He has an average build and height.

      Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Using eGFR to Determine Dose Adjustments in Renal Impairment

      Published information on the effects of renal impairment on drug elimination often uses creatinine clearance as a measure of glomerular filtration rate. However, in patients of average build and height, laboratories may report estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) based on the modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula. This can be used to determine appropriate dose adjustments for medications.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends avoiding metformin if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2 due to the risk of lactic acidosis. This is a serious condition that can occur when metformin accumulates in the body due to impaired renal function. By using eGFR to guide dose adjustments, healthcare providers can help prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe and effective medication use in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. The PCP observes a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid function assessment. During the examination, the patient appears sluggish and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg; there is paleness of the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrically enlarged without skin alterations; it moves upward when swallowing and has a nodular consistency.
      What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?

      Your Answer: Radio-isotope scan

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism

      The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a neck nodule that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a neck nodule that she has observed for the past month. Upon examination, a non-painful 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, located deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards when she swallows, and no other masses are palpable in her neck. What is the nature of this mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid nodule

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Nodule and its Investigation

      A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves inserting a thin needle into the nodule to collect a sample of cells for examination under a microscope. Fine needle aspiration is a minimally invasive and safe procedure that can provide valuable information about the nature of the thyroid nodule. It can help determine whether the nodule is benign or malignant, and guide further management and treatment options. Therefore, if a thyroid nodule is suspected, fine needle aspiration should be considered as the first step in the diagnostic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes for three years...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes for three years comes in for her annual check-up. Despite optimizing her oral hypoglycemic therapy, she has gained around 5 kg in weight over the past year and her HbA1c has worsened. She is also taking ramipril, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine, but her blood pressure remains difficult to control, with a reading of 172/102 mmHg. During the examination, she has developed abdominal striae, thin skin with bruising, and proximal weakness. The doctor suspects Cushing's syndrome. What is the most appropriate test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour urine free cortisol concentration

      Explanation:

      Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. To diagnose this condition, appropriate screening tests are necessary. The preferred test is the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, where 1 mg of dexamethasone is given at 11 pm, and cortisol levels are measured at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal.

      Another effective test is a 24-hour urine collection to measure free cortisol in the urine. An elevated cortisol level, usually above 250 nmol/day, indicates Cushing’s syndrome. However, random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests do not provide any diagnostic information.

      In investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome, chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to perform appropriate screening tests to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a three month history of weight gain. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a three month history of weight gain. During this time her weight has increased from 56 kg to 81 kg.

      She works as a teacher and was in a long-term relationship until three months ago. Following the break-up, she started to drink more and her meals became erratic. She has been recently diagnosed with anxiety. In addition, she recently broke her left ankle after falling while hiking.

      Her regular medications now include sertraline, vitamin D, and a benzoyl peroxide gel for acne.

      What is the next best test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood for midnight cortisol

      Explanation:

      Screening for Cushing’s Syndrome

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, including acne, weight gain, depression, and brittle bones. The most appropriate screening test for this condition is a midnight cortisol level in the blood or a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. While a dexamethasone suppression test can also be used, a single midnight cortisol level has the same sensitivity and is easier to administer.

      It is important to note that morning cortisol levels are more appropriate for diagnosing Addison’s disease. Additionally, while morning cortisol levels are used after a dexamethasone suppression test, the upper limit of normal is not well-defined, unlike the lower limit of normal. Therefore, levels below 550 ng/ml may indicate steroid insufficiency, but high levels cannot provide specific information.

      While hypothyroidism may explain some of the patient’s symptoms, a TSH test is not the best option for screening for Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, while blood sugar levels may be abnormal in this case, they will not aid in diagnosing the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, it is important to take action and screen for Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man underwent blood tests after a recent kidney stone surgery. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man underwent blood tests after a recent kidney stone surgery. The test results are as follows:

      Corrected calcium: 3.01 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.5)
      Phosphate: 0.49 mmol/L (normal range: 0.80-1.4)
      Alkaline phosphatase (alk phos): 166 U/L (normal range: 30-135)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 71 ng/L (normal range: 14-72 ng/L)
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): >60 ml/min/1.73m2

      What is the most likely reason for the high calcium level based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      High Serum Calcium Levels

      When analyzing blood test results, a high serum calcium level in combination with a low phosphate level, high serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) may indicate primary hyperparathyroidism. While the parathyroid hormone (PTH) may fall within the reference range, it is considered inappropriate for the high calcium levels, as it should be suppressed as part of the negative feedback mechanism. It is important to note that a result within the reference range may still be abnormal.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia of all the parathyroid glands, multiple adenomas, or parathyroid carcinoma. Other conditions, such as vitamin D excess or bony metastases, may also cause high calcium levels, but the PTH would be suppressed if it were the primary pathology. Severe hypercalcemia can lead to dehydration, but dehydration itself would not cause such high serum calcium levels. Sclerosing cholangitis may cause elevated ALP levels of liver origin, but it would not explain the other results. the potential causes of high serum calcium levels can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy

      Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.

      The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old man visits his doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man visits his doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who expresses concern that her husband has been acting strangely and not like himself lately. Upon questioning, the patient appears confused and complains of a persistent headache. The doctor conducts an examination but finds no additional signs. To investigate further, the doctor orders a full blood count with electrolytes and renal function, as well as a urinary analysis. The results reveal hyponatremia with reduced plasma osmolality and high urinary osmolality and sodium. Which medication is most commonly associated with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Medications and their potential to cause SIADH

      SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition where the body produces too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Some medications have been known to cause SIADH, while others do not.

      Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic medication that can cause SIADH by promoting water reabsorption through stimulation of the V2 vasopressin receptor-protein G complex. Trimeprazine, a phenothiazine derivative used for motion sickness and pruritus, does not cause SIADH. Atropine, an antimuscarinic, and digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, also do not cause SIADH.

      However, lithium, a mood stabilizer, can result in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, leading to hypernatremia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to monitor patients for any signs of SIADH or other adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old woman presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. Her lab results...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. Her lab results show elevated free T4 and free T3 levels, and a suppressed TSH level. She is currently on medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication is the most likely culprit for these abnormal thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication that can cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests, leading to both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3), while hyperthyroidism may result from thyroiditis or the donation of iodine (amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine). In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also cause pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and manage any resulting thyroid dysfunction appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - What would be the natural response to hypocalcaemia in a normal and healthy...

    Incorrect

    • What would be the natural response to hypocalcaemia in a normal and healthy individual, considering the various factors that influence serum calcium levels, including hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased kidney phosphate reabsorption, high PTH, low calcitonin

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. The history of patients with Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD) is crucial in determining the cause of their current presentation with haematemesis. As most of these patients are receiving aspirin, it is important to consider the possibility of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced peptic ulceration as the likely cause. To confirm this, an endoscopy should be performed, and the patient should be started on proton pump inhibition.

      It is important to note that gastric carcinoma typically presents with dysphagia and weight loss, while gastritis and oesophagitis present with a burning sensation in the chest and epigastric area, worsened by lying flat and triggered by certain foods or drinks. On the other hand, a Mallory-Weiss tear usually presents with haematemesis after multiple vomiting episodes due to abrasion and trauma to the oesophageal endothelium.

      The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. By considering the patient’s medical history and conducting necessary tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition, ensuring the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia. He is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol per week. He works as a taxi driver.

      During examination, his BMI is found to be 33.4 kg/m2, and his blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg. All other aspects of his cardiovascular examination are normal.

      Further investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, with the following results:
      - Fasting blood glucose: 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - HbA1c: 75 mmol/mol (20-42)
      - Total cholesterol: 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diet and lifestyle advice with metformin

      Explanation:

      Early Use of Metformin for Type 2 Diabetes

      Typical type 2 diabetes can be managed with diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. However, the EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the growing evidence supporting the early use of metformin. As a result, relying solely on diet and lifestyle advice is no longer considered sufficient.

      The updated guidelines emphasize the importance of early intervention with metformin to improve glycemic control and prevent complications associated with type 2 diabetes. This approach is particularly important for patients who are at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease or have other comorbidities. By starting treatment early, patients can achieve better outcomes and reduce the risk of long-term complications.

      In summary, the early use of metformin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes, along with diet and lifestyle modifications. This approach can help patients achieve better glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications associated with the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute agitation, fever, nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute agitation, fever, nausea and vomiting. On examination, she is disorientated and agitated, with a temperature of 40 °C and heart rate of 130 bpm, irregular pulse, and congestive cardiac failure. She has a history of hyperthyroidism due to Graves’ disease, neutropenia and agranulocytosis, and cognitive impairment. She lives alone. Laboratory investigations reveal the following results:
      Test Result Normal reference range
      Free T4 > 100 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      Free T3 > 30 pmol/l 3.5–5 pmol/l
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.01 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      TSH receptor antibody > 30 U/l < 0.9 U/l

      What should be included in the management plan for this 68-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thyroid Storm in Graves’ Disease Patients

      Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention in patients with Graves’ disease. The following are some treatment options for thyroid storm and their potential effects on the patient’s condition.

      Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone:
      This combination of medications can help inhibit the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, tone down the severe adrenergic response, and prevent T4 from being converted to the more potent T3. Propylthiouracil and iodine block the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, while propranolol and hydrocortisone help decrease the heart rate and blood pressure.

      Carbimazole, iodine, tri-iodothyronine:
      Carbimazole and iodine can inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormone, but tri-iodothyronine is very potent and would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim.

      Esmolol, thyroxine, dexamethasone:
      Esmolol and dexamethasone can tone down the severe adrenergic response and prevent T4 from being turned into T3. However, thyroxine would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim and make the situation worse.

      Lugol’s iodine, furosemide, thyroxine:
      Lugol’s iodine can be used to treat hyperthyroidism, but furosemide is not appropriate for addressing thyroid storm. Thyroxine would make the situation worse.

      Prednisolone, paracetamol, tri-iodothyronine:
      Prednisolone can prevent T4 from being converted to T3, but it is usually available in oral form and may not be efficient in addressing thyroid storm. Tri-iodothyronine would exacerbate the patient’s condition, and paracetamol is not indicated for this condition.

      In conclusion, the treatment options for thyroid storm in Graves’ disease patients depend on the patient’s condition and medical history. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of abdominal fullness and occasional pain. He reports experiencing anorexia, acid reflux, belching, and bloating. He is currently taking glimepiride, metformin, and exenatide and has generally had good control of his blood sugar. However, his last two tests have shown a trend of increasing fasting glucose levels. What is the next appropriate step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change diabetic medication

      Explanation:

      Changing Diabetic Medication for Gastroparesis

      A diabetic patient is experiencing delayed gastric emptying, a common side-effect of GLP-1 agonists like exenatide. To achieve better glycaemic control and prevent current side-effects, the patient’s diabetic medication needs to be changed. However, converting to insulin is not necessary for gastroparesis. Intensifying the current medication is not appropriate due to significant side-effects. Before considering a prokinetic agent like metoclopramide or domperidone, the GLP-1 analogue should be stopped. Treatment for H. pylori infection is not warranted as the patient’s symptoms are not indicative of peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2 diabetes. He is currently well-controlled on 5 mg glibenclamide daily. What is the best pre-operative plan for managing his blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop glibenclamide on the morning of surgery and commence insulin by intravenous infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Glibenclamide in a Patient Undergoing Major Surgery

      During major surgery, it is crucial to maintain optimal glycaemic control in patients with diabetes. In the case of a patient taking glibenclamide, the most appropriate course of action is to discontinue the medication on the morning of surgery. Instead, the patient should be started on intravenous (IV) insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for frequent blood glucose measurements and adjustment of the insulin infusion rate as needed.

      By stopping glibenclamide, the risk of hypoglycaemia during surgery is reduced. IV insulin and dextrose with potassium provide a more controlled and predictable method of glycaemic control during the stress of surgery. This approach ensures that the patient’s blood glucose levels remain within a safe range, reducing the risk of complications such as infection, delayed wound healing, and poor surgical outcomes.

      In summary, the management of glibenclamide in a patient undergoing major surgery involves discontinuing the medication on the morning of surgery and starting the patient on IV insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for optimal glycaemic control during the stress of surgery and reduces the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the neck, particularly when swallowing. She reports having had a viral respiratory infection a week ago. Upon examination, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations and excessive sweating are noted. Further tests reveal elevated ESR, leukocytosis, thyroid antibodies and low TSH levels. Additionally, a radionuclide thyroid uptake test shows decreased iodide uptake. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: de Quervain's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Thyroid Disorders: A Comparison of De Quervain’s, Graves’, Hashimoto’s, Subacute Lymphocytic, and Riedel’s Thyroiditis

      Thyroid disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, typically affects women after a viral respiratory infection. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis may occur initially, but the disease can progress to hypothyroidism with thyroid gland destruction. In contrast, Graves’ disease is characterized by a markedly increased uptake of iodine on a radionuclide thyroid test. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that can present with a hyperthyroid phase, but the patient is unlikely to experience fever and neck pain. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis occurs only after pregnancy, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid gland, mimicking a carcinoma. Understanding the unique features of each thyroid disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired sense of smell. He has a height on the 90th centile and weight on the 95th centile. There is no pubertal development in his external genitalia and his testicular volumes are 3 mL bilaterally. Upon investigation, his plasma luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone levels are both 1.0 U/L (1-10), while his serum testosterone level is 2.0 pmol/L (9-33). His free T4 level is 20 pmol/L (10-22) and his plasma thyroid stimulating hormone level is 3.2 mU/L (0.4-5). A CT brain scan shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kallmann’s syndrome, characterized by hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia. Klinefelter’s and Noonan’s also cause hypogonadism, while Prader-Willi is associated with hypogonadism and hyperphagia.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has been progressively worsening. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for investigating pituitary tumors, which are a common cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to assess whether a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not specific to acromegaly and is part of the physical exam.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last 4 months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
      What is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic study

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Possible Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome

      A woman presents with new-onset diabetes, diarrhoea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), along with a family history of renal calculi at a young age. These symptoms suggest the possibility of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 1 syndrome, an autosomal dominant disease characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, particularly the parathyroid gland and enteropancreatic tumors. The most common tumors in the latter group are gastrinoma and insulinoma, with glucagonoma occurring rarely. Other symptoms may include depression, anemia, glossitis, and in rare cases, a skin manifestation called necrolytic migratory erythema.

      To confirm a diagnosis of MEN 1, a genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best option. A family history of renal stones, as in this case, is the most common manifestation of MEN 1.

      Other diagnostic tests, such as protein C assessment, colonoscopy, and blood test for Giardia antigen, are not relevant to this particular case. Measuring C-peptide levels can help distinguish between type I and type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease. Giardiasis symptoms may include diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal cramps, bloating, gas, nausea, and weight loss, but tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia.

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  • Question 22 - What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Peptides Secreted by the Pituitary Gland

      The pituitary gland secretes various hormones that regulate different bodily functions. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes two peptides, oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Oxytocin, which is produced in the hypothalamus, stimulates uterine contractions during labor and is involved in the release of milk from the lactating breast. ADH, also known as vasopressin, is also produced in the hypothalamus and regulates water balance in the body.

      On the other hand, the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes six peptide hormones. These hormones include adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), growth hormone (GH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). ACTH stimulates the adrenal gland to produce cortisol, which helps the body respond to stress. Prolactin stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism. GH promotes growth and development in children and helps maintain muscle and bone mass in adults. FSH and LH regulate the reproductive system, with FSH stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males, while LH triggers ovulation in females and testosterone production in males.

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  • Question 23 - The blood results of a 58-year-old man were analyzed, revealing the following plasma...

    Incorrect

    • The blood results of a 58-year-old man were analyzed, revealing the following plasma values: Total Ca2+ at 2.80 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), Albumin at 40 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l), PO43− at 0.25 mmol/l (normal range: 0.70–1.40 mmol/l), Alkaline phosphatase at 170 iu/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l), and Parathyroid hormone (PTH) at 8 ng/l (normal range: 10–65 ng/l). Based on these results, what condition is this patient likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Parathyroid Hormone: Causes and Effects

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. However, various disorders can disrupt this delicate balance, leading to a range of health problems. Here are some common disorders of PTH and their effects:

      Squamous Cell Lung Cancer
      In some cases of squamous cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and renal cell carcinomas, the body produces parathyroid-related protein (PTHrP), which mimics the action of PTH. This leads to increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels, as well as elevated alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. However, unlike primary hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are lowered due to negative feedback.

      Chronic Renal Failure
      In chronic renal failure, the body’s ability to convert 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to calcitriol is impaired. This results in decreased calcium and increased phosphate reabsorption, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism as the body tries to compensate for low calcium levels.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism
      In primary hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands produce too much PTH, leading to elevated calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including bone pain, kidney stones, and digestive issues.

      Post-Thyroidectomy
      Thyroidectomy, or the surgical removal of the thyroid gland, can sometimes result in damage or removal of the parathyroid glands. This leads to low PTH levels, which in turn causes low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and other symptoms.

      Pseudohypoparathyroidism
      In pseudohypoparathyroidism, the body’s cells fail to respond appropriately to PTH, leading to elevated PTH levels but low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including muscle spasms, seizures, and developmental delays.

      In conclusion, disorders of PTH can have a significant impact on the body’s calcium and phosphate levels, leading to a range of symptoms and health problems. Understanding these disorders and their effects is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 24 - Which statement about leptin is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about leptin is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produces satiety

      Explanation:

      The Role of Leptin in Regulating Appetite and Body Weight

      Leptin is a hormone that is produced by adipocytes, or fat cells, and its concentration in the bloodstream is directly related to the amount of fat in the body. When leptin levels are high, it acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to produce feelings of satiety, or fullness, which can help to reduce food intake. This makes leptin an important regulator of appetite and body weight.

      However, in some cases, patients may develop leptin resistance, which means that their bodies are no longer able to respond to the hormone in the same way. This can lead to continued weight gain and difficulty in controlling food intake, even when leptin levels are high. Despite this, researchers continue to study the role of leptin in the body and explore potential treatments for obesity and other related conditions.

      Overall, the physiology of leptin and its effects on appetite and body weight is an important area of research that has the potential to improve the health and well-being of millions of people around the world. By developing new treatments and interventions that target leptin and other related hormones, we may be able to help patients achieve and maintain a healthy weight and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.

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  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive sweating. She reports that her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months and she also experiences itching. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 140/80 mmHg and her resting pulse is 95 bpm.
      What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Endocrine Disorder

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of an endocrine disorder, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some tests that may be useful in different scenarios:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels: These tests are essential when thyrotoxicosis is suspected. In rare cases, pruritus may also occur as a symptom.

      Plasma renin and aldosterone levels: This investigation may be useful if Conn syndrome is suspected, but it is not necessary in patients without significant hypertension. Electrolyte levels should be checked before this test.

      Full blood count and ferritin levels: These tests may be helpful in checking for anaemia, but they are less appropriate than TSH/T4 levels.

      Midnight cortisol level: This test is useful when Cushing’s syndrome is suspected. In this case, the only symptom that is compatible with this disorder is irregular menses.

      Test the urine for 24-hour free catecholamines: This test is used to investigate suspected phaeochromocytoma, which can cause similar symptoms to those seen in this case. However, hypertension is an important feature that is not present in this patient.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigations depends on the suspected endocrine disorder and the patient’s clinical presentation.

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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old female office assistant comes to you with complaints of palpitations, restlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female office assistant comes to you with complaints of palpitations, restlessness, fatigue, and excessive sweating. She also mentions that she has been experiencing irregular periods and has lost some weight recently. Upon examination, you notice that she has tachycardia and tremors, and her reflexes are hyperactive. Blood tests reveal that she has hyperthyroidism. Further examination of her neck shows multiple small nodules in an enlarged thyroid gland.

      What would be the best initial approach to manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Thyrotoxic Patient

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and requires treatment to alleviate the effects of adrenergic stimulation. The first step in treatment would be to administer propranolol, a beta-blocker that can help relieve symptoms such as palpitations, tremors, and anxiety.

      Once the patient’s symptoms have been managed, the next step would be to address the underlying cause of the thyrotoxicosis. This would involve treatment to restore the patient to a euthyroid state, which can be achieved through the use of radioiodine therapy. However, it is important to note that propranolol would still be necessary during this initial phase of treatment to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

      In summary, the treatment plan for this patient with thyrotoxicosis involves a two-step approach: first, managing symptoms with propranolol, and second, restoring the patient to a euthyroid state with radioiodine therapy.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.

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  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old girl (who has been recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa) exercises regularly....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl (who has been recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa) exercises regularly. During one period of exercise, she becomes very light-headed. Several minutes later, she breaks into a sweat and develops palpitations. A friend takes her to an Emergency Department where a serum glucose of 2.2 mmol/l is demonstrated. The patient is given a soft drink to sip and feels better half an hour later.
      Which of the following hormones most likely triggered the sweating and palpitations the patient experienced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epinephrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their Role in Hypoglycaemia

      Hypoglycaemia, or low blood sugar, can be caused by various factors including exercise and minimal glycogen and lipid stores. Hormones play a crucial role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia.

      Epinephrine is released in response to hypoglycaemia and promotes hepatic glucose production and release. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) triggers cortisol release, which stimulates gluconeogenesis over several hours. Calcitonin modulates serum calcium levels but does not play a direct role in hypoglycaemia.

      Insulin secretion is associated with hypoglycaemia but does not cause symptoms such as sweating or palpitations. Similarly, thyroxine can cause similar symptoms but is not responsible for a specific role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia. Understanding the role of hormones in hypoglycaemia can aid in its diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
      Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 h that stays high

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Glucose Levels in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes

      Insulin-dependent diabetes is a condition that affects the body’s ability to regulate glucose levels. When interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes, there are several key factors to consider.

      One important factor is the peak of plasma glucose that occurs between 1 and 2 hours after glucose ingestion. In normal individuals, this peak is typically sharper and occurs earlier than in insulin-dependent diabetics. In diabetics, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4-hour test period.

      Another factor to consider is the presence or absence of an overshoot in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours. This overshoot, which is seen in normal individuals but not in diabetics, is a result of a pulse of insulin secretion.

      A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time is unlikely in a diabetic patient, as they typically have high basal glucose levels. Similarly, a glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours is not expected in insulin-dependent diabetics, as their plasma glucose levels remain elevated throughout the test period.

      Finally, it is important to consider the HbA1c level, which reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. In a diabetic patient who has been untreated for several weeks, the HbA1c would likely be elevated.

      Overall, interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes requires careful consideration of multiple factors to accurately assess the patient’s condition.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old baker presents with a history of increasing thirst and polyuria over...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old baker presents with a history of increasing thirst and polyuria over the past two months. He has put on some weight over the past few years and has been trying to exercise, but with little success. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2. He is otherwise well without other medical history to note.
      He mentions that his father has diabetes, as does his older brother. The patient is concerned that he may also have the condition.
      Which of the following is the most common finding in a patient presenting with undiagnosed type II diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyphagia

      Explanation:

      Type II diabetes is commonly diagnosed in patients over 40 years old, with many patients showing no symptoms. However, when symptoms do occur, they often include increased thirst (polydipsia), frequent urination (polyuria), excessive hunger (polyphagia), blurred vision, yeast infections (balanitis in men), peripheral neuropathy, and bed-wetting (nocturnal enuresis) in younger patients with type I diabetes. While patients with type II diabetes are often overweight, they typically present with recent weight loss rather than weight gain. Markedly elevated ketones are not a common presentation of type II diabetes, but may occur in advanced stages of the disease. Oliguria, or decreased urine output, is not typically seen in patients with type II diabetes, as they tend to experience excessive thirst and increased urine output.

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