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  • Question 1 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential. The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Fast depolarisation due to influx of potassium

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in...

    Correct

    • With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting. Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25. Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?

      Your Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time

      Explanation:

      Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.

      There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

      Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
      Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
      Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
      Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

      Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.

      In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.

      The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.

      There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.

      If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose

      Explanation:

      In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

      With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

      By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

      The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

      The fluid regimen recommended is:
      500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
      500ml of 5% dextrose and
      500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in rhesus, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The ITU SHO wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in her ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?

      Your Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

      The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

      Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
      Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
      Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

      Regarding the other options:
      The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
      The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
      The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male...

    Correct

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin. Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion

      Explanation:

      The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:

      Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
      Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
      The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
      Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.

      Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.

      The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
      One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
      The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
      The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
      The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
      The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary is made up mostly of neural tissue. It is responsible for the storage and release of 2 hormones:
      – antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      – oxytocin.

      These two hormones are synthesised in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting. In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true? ...

    Correct

    • The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?

      Your Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.

      Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.

      The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE...

    Correct

    • A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?

      Your Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation. Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer: It needs to work rapidly

      Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?

      Your Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:...

    Correct

    • The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:

      Your Answer: Slow influx of calcium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took...

    Incorrect

    • A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows: Mean Value: 7mmol/L, Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L, Sample Size: 9, Standard Error: 2mmol/L. For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?

      Your Answer: 2-12 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      Multiply the standard error by 3.

      Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.

      For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal...

    Correct

    • Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas. The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?

      Your Answer: Helium

      Explanation:

      The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

      The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
      Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
      Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
      PV = nRT
      Where:

      P = pressure
      V = volume
      n = moles of gas
      T = temperature
      R = universal gas constant

      Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

      Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

      Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern . Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious. Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit. Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.

      Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients

      Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.

      In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.

      Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?

      Your Answer: Bicipital aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.

      It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to...

    Correct

    • Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks?

      Your Answer: Variable performance devices are colour coded and are marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate

      Correct Answer: The oxygen concentration delivered by high air flow oxygen enrichment devices is not dependent on the respiratory pattern of the patient

      Explanation:

      The normal peak inspiratory flow in healthy individuals is 20-30 L/min during each normal tidal ventilation. This is expected to increase with greater respiratory rate and deeper inspiration.

      Face masks are used to facilitate the delivery of oxygen from a breathing system to a patient. Face masks can be divided into two types: fixed performance or variable performance devices.

      In fixed performance devices (also known as high air flow oxygen enrichment or HAFOE), fixed inspired oxygen concentration is delivered to the patent, independent and greater than that of the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR). No random entrainment is expected to occur at the time of PIFR, hence, the oxygen concentration in HAFOE devices is not dependent on the patient’s respiratory pattern.

      Moreover, in HAFOE masks, the concentration of oxygen at a given oxygen flow rate is determined by the size of the constriction; a device with a greater entrainment aperture delivers a lower oxygen concentration. Therefore, a 40% Venturi device will have lesser entrainment aperture when compared to a 31% Venturi. Venturi masks allow relatively fixed concentrations of supplemental oxygen to be inspired e.g. 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40% and 60% oxygen. These are colour coded and marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate.

      Variable performance devices deliver variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, and is dependent on the PIFR. The PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, depending on a patient’s inspiratory effort. In addition, these masks allow expired air to be released through the holes in the sides of the mask. Thus, with increased respiratory rate, rebreathing of alveolar gas from inside the mask may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?...

    Correct

    • Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?

      Your Answer: Lack circuit

      Explanation:

      Among the breathing circuits, the Lack circuit is the most efficient for spontaneous breathing.

      An outer coaxial tube is present to deliver fresh air; exhaust air is routed to an inner tube, which is then delivered to a scavenging system. An expiratory valve is seen at the patient end, which is an advantage over other circuits. Moreover, the Lack circuit prevents rebreathing slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation at 4-5 litres per minute.

      The Bain circuit prevents rebreathing at 160-200ml/kg per minute, and is a co-axial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit prevent rebreathing at a fresh gas flow (FGF) of approximately twice the patient’s normal minute volume. A modification of this, the Mapleson F, has a reservoir bag at the opposite end for the FGF. This circuit is appropriate for paediatric patients with a body weight less than 20 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A pulmonary function tests results are: (Measurement, Predicted result, Test result). Forced vital...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are: (Measurement, Predicted result, Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.85, 2.36 Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 3.34, 0.97. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 85.1, 39.9. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 7.33, 2.11. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 116, 44.4. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Moderate obstructive and severe restrictive picture

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35%

      This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as V1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective α1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of α2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the...

    Incorrect

    • A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the wrist to indicate the degree of neuromuscular blockade. Which single muscle or group of muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve is best for monitoring the twitch function during neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Opponens digiti minimi

      Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.

      Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.

      Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.

      To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).

      The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.

      The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.

      The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).

      The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh....

    Correct

    • A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh. The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?

      Your Answer: Venoconstriction

      Explanation:

      In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.

      In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.

      Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.

      In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.

      In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.

      Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.

      Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.

      The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on...

    Correct

    • A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on all-cause mortality. The rate of death in the group receiving this drug is 8%, compared with 16% in the control group. What is the number needed to treat with drug Z to prevent death?

      Your Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat is a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death).

      It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction and is rounded to the next highest whole number.

      The absolute risk reduction is 8% (16% – 8%). 100/8 = 12.5, so rounding up the next integer this gives at NNT of 13. i.e. you would need to give the new drug to 13 people to ensure that you prevented one death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on...

    Correct

    • Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?

      Your Answer: Protein binding

      Explanation:

      When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to α1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.

      The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.

      Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how...

    Correct

    • A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg. Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?

      Your Answer: 35mmHg‹…min‹…mL-1

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured...

    Correct

    • The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured by a health care professional. This is what he found: Year: People with Diabetes vs New Cases 2017: 150,000 vs 2000 2018: 150,000 vs 4000. What can be stated regarding the incidence and prevalence of the disease in that area?

      Your Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

      In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer: Closure of sarcolemmal KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology And Biochemistry (4/5) 80%
Pathophysiology (5/5) 100%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Statistical Methods (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/2) 50%
Clinical Measurement (1/2) 50%
Passmed