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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in Nepal. She had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day for a hiking trip with her friends. She reports feeling light-headed and dizzy in the hotel lobby in the morning. Despite taking a short rest, she continues to feel unwell and complains of nausea and a generalised dull headache. She is overweight and has no history of migraine. Although she is well oriented, she feels that her nausea and headache are getting worse.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude
Correct Answer: Administer oxygen and acetazolamide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
Acute mountain sickness (AMS) is a common condition that can occur when ascending to high altitudes without proper acclimatization. Symptoms include nausea, headache, difficulty breathing, and dizziness. Here are some treatment options for AMS:
Administer oxygen and acetazolamide: Low-flow oxygen and acetazolamide can effectively relieve symptoms of AMS. Dexamethasone is also an alternative to acetazolamide.
Antiemetics and a dose of prophylactic antibiotics: These can help relieve symptoms in mild cases, but are not sufficient for moderate to severe cases.
Nifedipine: This medication may be effective in treating high-altitude pulmonary edema, but has no role in treating AMS.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and bed rest: NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief, but cannot cure the underlying cause of AMS.
Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude: Descent is always an effective treatment for AMS, but is not necessary unless symptoms are intractable or there is suspicion of illness progression.
Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman has been under your care for an acute exacerbation of COPD. It is his second admission for his COPD in the last twelve months and has had one previous ITU admission.
So far on the ward, he has received treatment with back-to-back salbutamol and ipratropium nebulisers, oral prednisolone and intravenous theophylline. He is also receiving a course of intravenous co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin due to a suspected infectious cause.
His latest results are as follows:
Obs:
BP 140/92 mmHg
HR 90/min
RR 24/min
SaO2 80%
Temp 38.2ºC
Arterial Blood Gas:
pH 7.30
PaO2 7.8 kPa
PaCO2 9.5 kPa
HCO3- 36 mmol/L
BE +5
What is the main indicator for initiating non-invasive ventilation in this patient?Your Answer: PaCO2 >6 kPa and pH <7.35
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When a patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD shows signs of respiratory acidosis (PaCO2>6 kPa, pH <7.35 ≥7.26) that persist despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment, it is recommended to consider the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV). This is particularly important in cases where the patient is severely ill, as in the case of this patient with an infectious exacerbation of COPD. The British Thoracic Society guidelines suggest that NIV should be considered after maximal medical therapy, which in this case includes nebulisers, steroids, and theophylline. While there are other concerning features of this patient's condition, the PaCO2 and pH levels are the key indicators for the use of NIV. Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines for the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV) in acute respiratory failure. NIV can be used in patients with COPD and respiratory acidosis with a pH of 7.25-7.35. However, patients with a pH lower than 7.25 require greater monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation and ventilation. NIV is also recommended for type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease, or obstructive sleep apnea, as well as for cardiogenic pulmonary edema unresponsive to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and weaning from tracheal intubation. For patients with COPD, the recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 10-15 cm H2O, a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration-to-expiration ratio of 1:3. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the need for invasive mechanical ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a bicycle accident. He reports feeling fine and denies any symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, or loss of consciousness. The patient has a medical history of tricuspid valve replacement and takes warfarin. On examination, a small 1 cm laceration is found on his left temple, which has stopped bleeding. The patient has a GCS score of 15/15 and a normal neurological exam. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Perform a CT scan within 8 hours
Explanation:If a person is taking anticoagulants and has suffered a head injury, it is crucial to conduct a CT scan within 8 hours. This is because such patients are at a higher risk of developing intracranial bleeds, which may have a delayed onset of symptoms. While neurological observations are necessary, they cannot replace the need for a CT scan in this case. Discharging the patient with safety netting advice would also be inappropriate as they may have developed a serious intracranial bleed due to their anticoagulant therapy. However, performing a CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary if the patient does not exhibit key symptoms such as post-traumatic seizures or vomiting. It is also not appropriate to perform an MRI scan within 8 hours as CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for head injuries.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of menstrual irregularity, ‘hot flashes’, nausea, palpitations and sweating, especially at night. The GP suspects that the patient may be experiencing premature menopause.
What is a known factor that can cause premature menopause?Your Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Premature Menopause: Risk Factors and Associations
Premature menopause, also known as premature ovarian failure, is a condition where a woman’s ovaries stop functioning before the age of 40. While the exact cause is unknown, there are certain risk factors and associations that have been identified.
Addison’s Disease: Women with Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands, may have steroid cell autoantibodies that cross-react with the ovarian follicles. This can lead to premature ovarian failure and early menopause.
Multiparity: Having multiple pregnancies does not increase the risk of premature menopause.
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: While PCOS can cause menstrual irregularities, it is not associated with premature menopause.
Recurrent Miscarriage: Women who experience recurrent miscarriages are not at an increased risk for premature menopause.
Hyperthyroidism: Hyperthyroidism can cause menstrual disturbances, but once it is treated and the patient is euthyroid, their menstrual cycle returns to normal. It is not associated with premature menopause.
In conclusion, while the cause of premature menopause is still unknown, it is important to understand the risk factors and associations in order to identify and manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?Your Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production
Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.
It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.
Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.
In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 85-year-old, previously healthy woman comes to the Emergency department after collapsing at home. She looks pale and breathless, with a respiratory rate of 28, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, a heart rate of 64 bpm sinus, and a blood pressure of 164/88 mmHg. Her haemoglobin level is 70 g/L (115-165), and tests are being conducted to determine the cause.
What is the best approach to enhance her oxygenation?Your Answer: Transfuse two units of blood
Explanation:Interpreting Oxygen Saturation in Anemic Patients
Interpreting oxygen saturation levels in anemic patients can be misleading. While a patient may have a saturation level of 98%, it does not necessarily mean that they have enough oxygen in their blood. This is because the patient may not have enough hemoglobin to carry the oxygen. To calculate the amount of oxygen per liter of blood, the equation (13.9 × Hb × sats/100) + (PaO2 × 0.03) ml O2/litre blood can be used. The latter part of the equation refers to the amount of dissolved oxygen in the blood and can be ignored for now.
Advising an anemic patient to breathe more rapidly may slightly increase their oxygen saturation levels, but it will cause them to blow off all their CO2 and experience tingling in their fingers and around their mouth. Increasing their saturation levels from 98% to 100% will not make a significant difference. Similarly, advising the patient to breathe more slowly is unlikely to have any significant effect. Giving the patient maximum oxygen through a facemask or artificial ventilation will also not be helpful since the limiting factor is the amount of hemoglobin.
In cases where anemic patients require oxygen therapy, it is important to consider their hemoglobin levels. One unit of blood transfusion can raise Hb by approximately 10 grams/L, which can make a significant difference in the amount of oxygen carried by the blood. Therefore, in such cases, administering two units of blood transfusion may be the most effective solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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To which bone does Sever's disease refer, and at what age is it commonly diagnosed?
Your Answer: Calcaneum
Explanation:Sever’s Disease
Sever’s disease is a condition that causes pain in one or both heels when walking or standing. It occurs due to a disturbance or interruption in the growth plates located at the back of the heel bone, also known as the calcaneus. This condition typically affects children between the ages of 8 and 13 years old.
The pain associated with Sever’s disease can occur after general activities such as running, jumping, or playing sports like netball, basketball, and football. Symptoms include extreme pain when placing the heel on the ground, which can be alleviated when the child walks on their tiptoes.
In summary, Sever’s disease is a common condition that affects children during their growth and development. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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Each one of the following is a feature of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?
Your Answer: Mydriasis
Explanation:Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor in the Emergency Department. You are asked to see a 7-year-old girl. She has been brought in by her grandmother with a wrist injury following a fall from a swing while staying with her mother. Her grandmother reports that this is the third time in the past four months that she has been injured while staying with her mother. On examination, she has several bruises on her arms and legs. You are concerned about the welfare of the child.
What is the most appropriate immediate action for you to take?Your Answer: Discuss the case with the safeguarding lead in the department
Explanation:Dealing with Safeguarding Concerns as an FY2 Doctor
As an FY2 doctor, it is important to know how to handle safeguarding concerns appropriately. If you have any concerns about a patient’s welfare, it is crucial to follow the correct protocol to ensure their safety. Here are some options for dealing with safeguarding concerns:
1. Discuss the case with the safeguarding lead in the department. It is always best to seek advice from someone with more experience in this area.
2. Contact the police if you are concerned about the current safety of a patient. However, if the child is in the department, they can be considered to be in a place of safety.
3. Do not investigate the allegations yourself. This could put the child at increased risk. Instead, follow the correct protocol for dealing with safeguarding concerns.
4. If you have concerns regarding a child’s welfare, ensure you have followed the correct protocol and be confident that it is safe to discharge them. Always discuss your concerns with the safeguarding lead.
5. If you are going to make a referral to social services, try to gain consent from the parent or patient. If consent is refused, the referral can still be made, but it is important to inform the patient or parent of your actions.
Remember, as an FY2 doctor, you are still inexperienced, and it is important to seek advice and guidance from more experienced colleagues when dealing with safeguarding concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant comes to her GP with concerns of exposure to an infectious disease. Her neighbor's son has a rash and a high temperature. She has no medical history and is unsure if she had chickenpox in childhood. What is the initial step to take?
Your Answer: Check varicella antibodies
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, the first step is to check if she has varicella antibodies. If she is unsure whether she has had chickenpox in the past, the presence or absence of antibodies will determine the next course of action.
If a pregnant woman is over 20 weeks gestation and does not have varicella antibodies, she should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin or oral acyclovir within 7-14 days of exposure. Delaying the administration of oral acyclovir can reduce the risk of developing chickenpox.
Oral acyclovir is also recommended if a pregnant woman over 20 weeks gestation develops chickenpox. However, caution should be exercised if the patient is under 20 weeks gestation and does not have any symptoms of chickenpox.
The varicella-zoster vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women as it is a live attenuated vaccine that can cross the placenta and cause foetal varicella syndrome. It can be given to women who have not had chickenpox and are not immune to antibody testing, but they should avoid getting pregnant for three months after receiving the vaccine.
Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is recommended for pregnant women who are not immune to varicella on antibody testing and can receive it within 10 days of exposure. However, it provides short-lived protection, so patients should be advised to get the varicella-zoster vaccine after their pregnancy.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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