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Question 1
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Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy
When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red, hot, and painful right knee that developed over the past three days. He denies having a fever and was previously healthy. He receives monthly octreotide for his acromegaly and does not take any diuretics. An X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. What results would you anticipate from the joint fluid microscopy?
Your Answer: Negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Correct Answer: Weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Acromegaly patients are at an increased risk of developing pseudogout, which is characterized by chondrocalcinosis. The crystals involved in pseudogout are rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent. It is important to note that negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals do not cause crystal arthropathy, while negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals are associated with gout crystal arthropathy. Additionally, weakly positive birefringent needle-shaped crystals are not known to cause crystal arthropathy.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has experienced a stillbirth and wants to stop lactation. What medication should be used for this purpose?
Your Answer: Domperidone
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:Medications for Lactation Suppression
Lactation is stimulated by the release of prolactin, and drugs that decrease prolactin levels are effective in suppressing lactation. Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are the most commonly used drugs for this purpose. On the other hand, drugs like domperidone and amitriptyline that increase serum prolactin levels are not effective in suppressing lactation.
Ondansetron is an antiemetic drug that works by blocking the 5-HT system. It is not used for lactation suppression as it does not affect prolactin levels. L-dopa, another drug that can reduce prolactin levels, is not commonly used due to its side effects. It often causes nausea in patients, making dopamine agonists a preferred choice for lactation suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female patient has been referred for primary amenorrhoea. Upon investigation, it is found that she has a 46 XY karyotype. What is a true statement regarding this condition?
Your Answer: A diagnosis of Turner's syndrome is likely
Correct Answer: The diagnosis is likely to be androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Gender-related Disorders and their Causes
Gender-related disorders can arise due to various factors. Androgen insensitivity syndrome, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome, is caused by an androgen receptor defect that leads to a female phenotype. Stilboestrol therapy, on the other hand, has been linked to the activation of latent tumours and changes in sexual behaviour, but it does not cause any abnormalities in sexual identity.
Noonan’s syndrome is a condition where male infants exhibit physical features similar to those found in Turner’s syndrome. However, they are still biologically male. In contrast, neither prednisolone nor maternal thyrotoxicosis can cause gender malassignment problems. It is important to understand the causes of gender-related disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support to those affected. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient arrives at the hospital reporting he took a significant overdose of paracetamol over 12 hours ago.
On exam, he appears unwell and has significant right upper quadrant tenderness and so acetylcysteine treatment was commenced.
An arterial blood gas with other specific tests taken 48 hours post first ingestion shows:
pH 7.20 7.35–7.45
pC02 5.0 kPa 4.4–5.9
pO2 11.0 kPa 10.0–14.0
HCO3 10 mmol/L 22–28
Lac 6 mmol/L <2
Creatinine 700 μmol/L 53–106
Bilirubin 400 μmol/L 2–17
Prothrombin time (PT) 20 sec 11-15
What result indicates that this case meets the King's College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation?Your Answer: Bilirubin
Correct Answer: pH
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
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A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting a family. She and her partner are both diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and are currently undergoing weekly methotrexate treatment. The patient was informed about the need for pregnancy advice when she began taking the medication. What recommendations should you provide?
Your Answer: The patient will need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving. Her partner can continue methotrexate
Correct Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving
Explanation:To avoid teratogenic effects, both men and women must discontinue the use of methotrexate for at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which affects DNA synthesis and can harm the rapidly dividing cells of the fetus. Additionally, methotrexate can damage various semen parameters. It is not enough for only the patient to stop taking methotrexate; both partners must cease use. Taking folic acid during pregnancy does not counteract the harmful effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism and does not address the partner’s use of the drug. Waiting for 3 months is insufficient; both partners must wait for 6 months to ensure that methotrexate will not cause teratogenic effects.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.
During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.
Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.
NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of Atlantoaxial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A mother brings her 4-year-old girl to see you with a cough. You notice an alert on her notes that states she is on a child protection plan.
Which of the following is true regarding a child protection plan?Your Answer: They are devised for children at risk of significant harm
Explanation:Understanding Child Protection Plans and Child in Need Plans
Child protection plans and child in need plans are two different interventions designed to support children who may be at risk of harm or in need of extra support. It is important to understand the differences between these plans and how they are implemented.
Child protection plans are devised for children who are at risk of significant harm. The aim of these plans is to ensure the child’s safety, promote their health and development, and support the family in safeguarding and promoting the child’s welfare. Child protection plans are not voluntary and involve a team of professionals working together to ensure the child’s safety.
On the other hand, child in need plans are voluntary and are designed to support children who may need extra help with their health, safety, or development. These plans identify a lead professional and outline the resources and services needed to achieve the planned outcomes within a specific timeframe.
It is important to note that both plans involve consultation with parents, wider family members, and relevant agencies. Additionally, child protection plans are regularly reviewed to ensure that the child’s safety and well-being are being maintained.
In summary, child protection plans and child in need plans are interventions designed to support children in different ways. Understanding the differences between these plans can help ensure that children receive the appropriate support and interventions they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old chronic smoker was diagnosed with lung cancer 6 months ago after presenting with weight loss, haemoptysis, and shortness of breath. He returns to the Emergency Department complaining of nausea and lethargy that have been worsening over the past 3 weeks. While waiting to see the doctor, he has a seizure. He has a history of hypertension. The following are the results of his investigations:
Investigations Results Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 120 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Serum osmolality 250 mOsmol/kg 280–290 mOsmol/kg
Urine osmolality 1500 mOsmol/kg 50–1200 mOsmol/kg
Haematocrit 27%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH)
The patient in this scenario is likely experiencing a seizure due to hyponatremia caused by Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH). SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia, serum hypo-osmolality, urine hyperosmolality, and a decreased hematocrit. The patient’s history of lung cancer is a clue to the underlying cause.
Epilepsy is unlikely as there is no history of seizures mentioned. Central diabetes insipidus presents with hypernatremia, serum hyperosmolality, and urine hypo-osmolality, while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus presents with the same clinical picture. Psychogenic polydipsia is also ruled out as patients with this condition produce hypotonic urine, not hypertonic urine as seen in this patient’s presentation.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of SIADH is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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