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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old obese woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old obese woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of colicky pain in her right hypochondrium. An ultrasound scan reveals multiple stones in her gallbladder, but her common bile duct and gallbladder wall appear normal. Her blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 118 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), platelet count of 350 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), white blood cell count of 8.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L), and CRP level of 6 mg/L (normal range: < 5 mg/L). What is the best management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for biliary colic is elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. This outpatient procedure should be scheduled for the patient within 6 months. Emergency laparoscopic cholecystectomy is not necessary as there are no signs of acute infection. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is also not appropriate as there is no evidence of CBD stones or obstruction. Percutaneous cholecystostomy is not recommended as the patient is stable and drainage of bile is not necessary.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man, who has a history of hypertension and gout, visits you...

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    • A 42-year-old man, who has a history of hypertension and gout, visits you with a severely inflamed big toe on his right foot. He is currently taking indomethacin and allopurinol for his gout, but he is dissatisfied with the treatment and wants an alternative for arthritis control. You prescribe colchicine, and after three doses, his pain and swelling subside. What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in treating gout?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting monosodium urate-induced activation of neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Colchicine is a medication used to treat acute gout attacks when NSAIDs are not effective or cannot be used. It works by inhibiting the activation of neutrophils by monosodium urate crystals, which disrupts the cytoskeleton and prevents the appropriate inflammatory response. However, it can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and hepatic/renal toxicity.

      Decreasing the breakdown of purines is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of allopurinol, which inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase and blocks the formation of uric acid. This medication is used to prevent gout attacks and hyperuricemia from chemotherapy, but can cause side-effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and hepatotoxicity.

      Inhibiting phospholipase A2 is not the mode of action of colchicine, but rather of glucocorticoids. Similarly, inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of NSAIDs. These medications can cause side-effects such as gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration.

      Finally, suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of immunosuppressive medications like glucocorticoids and tacrolimus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks...

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    • A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s Syndrome

      Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

      The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.2
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the...

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    • A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient appears disinterested and unresponsive when discussing recent and upcoming events in his life, such as his upcoming trip to Hawaii and his recent separation from his spouse.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Blunting of affect

      Explanation:

      Emotional and Cognitive Symptoms in Mental Health

      Blunting of affect is a condition where an individual experiences a loss of normal emotional expression towards events. This can be observed in people with schizophrenia, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Anhedonia, on the other hand, is the inability to derive pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Depersonalisation is a feeling of detachment from oneself, where an individual may feel like they are not real. Labile affect is characterized by sudden and inappropriate changes in emotional expression. Lastly, thought blocking is a sudden interruption in the flow of thought.

      These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with mental health conditions and can significantly impact their daily lives. It is important to recognize and address these symptoms to provide appropriate treatment and support. By these symptoms, mental health professionals can better assess and diagnose their patients, leading to more effective treatment plans. Additionally, individuals experiencing these symptoms can seek help and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.2
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits...

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    • A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits his GP for a routine check-up. During the appointment, he mentions to his doctor that he has been experiencing difficulty with his vision in his right eye for the past few months. He describes it as blurry vision and seeing halos around lights at night. The man has never had any vision problems before. He is currently taking medications for his high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Other than his vision, his physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis for the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cataract

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggest a diagnosis of cataract. Their elderly age, long-standing diabetes mellitus, and unilateral blurry vision with halos around light sources are all classic signs of cataract. There is no indication of steroid use, which can also increase the risk of cataract development.

      While primary open-angle glaucoma is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s symptoms. This condition typically presents with peripheral visual field loss rather than blurry vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but it is more commonly associated with halos than primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Uveitis is unlikely given the absence of pain and redness in the eye. Additionally, it is not typically associated with diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is another possibility in this patient, but it is often asymptomatic or presents with hemorrhage.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      1.5
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy for breast carcinoma one year ago presents with complaints of polyuria, nocturia, and excessive thirst. Her laboratory values show a serum sodium of 130 mmol/L (133-145), serum potassium of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-5), serum calcium of 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), glucose of 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-6), urea of 4.3 mmol/L (3-8), and urine osmolality of 150 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic Polydipsia

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a rare condition where a person drinks excessive amounts of water without any physiological reason to do so. This disorder is usually well-tolerated unless it leads to hyponatremia. Psychogenic polydipsia is commonly observed in hospitalized schizophrenics, depressed patients, and children. The diagnosis of this condition is made by excluding other possible causes and requires specialized investigation and management. The water deprivation test is the most important test for diagnosing psychogenic polydipsia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus is a condition caused by a lack of action of ADH, which results in high osmolality and high sodium levels, leading to dehydration. This condition causes inappropriately dilute urine. To exclude diabetes insipidus, a water deprivation test is required. However, in patients with psychogenic polydipsia, the urine becomes appropriately concentrated upon water deprivation, whereas in diabetes insipidus, the urine remains dilute.

      In this patient, the history of depression, relative dilution of sodium, and low urine osmolality suggest a diagnosis of psychogenic polydipsia. The presence of hyponatremia further supports this diagnosis. Therefore, it is important to consider psychogenic polydipsia as a possible cause of excessive water drinking in patients with hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at...

    Correct

    • A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0.9
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He has...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He has a penetrating stab wound in his abdomen and is haemodynamically unstable. He is not pregnant. A FAST scan is carried out.

      What is the primary purpose of a FAST scan?

      Your Answer: To investigate for presence of free fluid

      Explanation:

      FAST scans are a non-invasive method used in trauma to quickly evaluate the presence of free fluid in the chest, peritoneal or pericardial cavities. They are particularly useful in emergency care during the primary or secondary survey to assess the extent of free fluid or pneumothorax. Although CTG is the preferred method for assessing fetal wellbeing, FAST scans can be safely performed in pregnant patients and children, especially in cases of trauma. However, it is important to note that FAST scans have limitations in detecting cardiac tamponade, which requires echocardiography for accurate diagnosis. X-rays and CT scans are more effective in detecting fractures, while FAST scans are specifically designed to identify fluid in the abdomen and thorax. It is important to note that FAST scans cannot be used to assess solid organ injury, and other imaging methods such as formal ultrasound or CT scans are required in such cases.

      Trauma management follows the principles of ATLS and involves an ABCDE approach. Thoracic injuries include simple pneumothorax, mediastinal traversing wounds, tracheobronchial tree injury, haemothorax, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic injury, and traumatic aortic disruption. Abdominal trauma may involve deceleration injuries and injuries to the spleen, liver, or small bowel. Diagnostic tools include diagnostic peritoneal lavage, abdominal CT scan, and ultrasound. Urethrography may be necessary for suspected urethral injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.2
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  • Question 9 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

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    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2
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  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 624 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73m² (>90)

      CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?

      Your Answer: Sublingual fentanyl

      Explanation:

      For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73². Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73²), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed