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Question 1
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?Your Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable
Explanation:Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study
A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline
Explanation:Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline
Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.
The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You review a 56-year-old woman in the clinic who has a history of type 2 diabetes. She is currently treated with metformin 1g PO BD. On examination her BP is 150/80 mmHg, pulse is 78 and regular. Her chest is clear. Her abdomen is soft and non tender, her BMI is 31. Her bA1c is elevated at 9.1%, creatinine is 110 µmol/l. You decide to add dapagliflozin to her treatment plan. What is the correct mode of action of dapagliflozin?
Your Answer: Increases glucose secretion in the distal renal tubule
Correct Answer: Reduces glucose reabsorption
Explanation:How Dapagliflozin Reduces Blood Glucose Levels
Dapagliflozin is a medication that inhibits the SGLT-2 (sodium glucose transporter) in the kidneys, which reduces the reabsorption of glucose. This means that around 30% of glucose present in the glomerular filtrate is not reabsorbed and is instead passed out into the urine. As a result, blood glucose levels are reduced without causing weight gain, and even with minor weight loss in clinical trials. However, increased loss of glucose into the urine has been associated with a higher risk of urinary tract infections.
It is important to note that dapagliflozin’s effects on insulin sensitivity are indirect. On the other hand, SGLT-1 inhibitors block the absorption of glucose from the intestine. Overall, dapagliflozin’s ability to reduce glucose reabsorption in the kidneys is a key mechanism in its effectiveness as a medication for managing blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man arrives in the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department with significant burns to his face, torso, and hands after throwing petrol on a bonfire. According to the rule of nines, he has 31.5% burns. He weighs 95 kg.
What would be the appropriate amount of fluid resuscitation based on the Parkland formula?Your Answer: 18L, with 6L given in the first 6 h followed by 12L over the next 12 h
Correct Answer: 12L, with 6L given in the first 8 h followed by 6L over the next 16 h
Explanation:Understanding Fluid Resuscitation in Major Burns
Fluid resuscitation is a crucial aspect of treating patients with major burns. The goal is to replace fluid losses and maintain tissue perfusion to prevent the spread of tissue damage. The Parkland formula is a guide used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, based on the patient’s body weight and the percentage of burn surface area. The formula recommends giving 50% of the total fluid requirement in the first 8 hours and the remaining 50% over the next 16 hours.
However, caution should be exercised to avoid overly aggressive fluid resuscitation, which can worsen tissue oedema and hypoxia. The aim is to achieve a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults. Children require maintenance fluid in addition to the calculated fluid requirement.
It’s important to note that the Parkland formula is a guide, and the fluid requirement may vary depending on the patient’s condition. The initial shift of fluid from the intravascular compartment to the interstitial tissues can lead to hypotension, and burns to the skin can reduce the body’s ability to regulate fluid losses and temperature. Therefore, careful monitoring and adjustment of fluid resuscitation are necessary to ensure optimal outcomes for patients with major burns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a rash that has developed. Upon further inquiry, the father explains that the rash started behind her ears two days ago and has since spread. Prior to the rash, the baby had a fever and cough. Although she is up to date with her vaccinations, the father has not yet scheduled her next appointment. During the examination, the baby appears irritable, has white spots in her mouth, and inflamed eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the potential risk for the baby?
Your Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:Otitis media is the most frequent complication that arises from measles, which typically presents with an initial prodrome of cough, coryza, and the appearance of white spots on the buccal mucosa known as koplik spots. The rash usually emerges between day 3 and 5, starting behind the ears and spreading down the body.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They complain of pain in the area and feel that the situation is getting worse. Apart from this, they are in good health and have no fever. On examination, you observe an erythematosus area measuring around 2 cm under the left heel, with partial-thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis. There is no necrotic tissue, discharge, or foul odor.
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Topical barrier cream and repositioning
Explanation:Management of Grade II Pressure Ulcers: Topical Barrier Cream and Repositioning
Grade II pressure ulcers with partial-thickness skin loss can be managed with topical barrier creams such as Sudocrem®, Proshield™, and Cavilon™. These creams protect the underlying skin and prevent further damage. Regular repositioning and the use of aids to relieve pressure should also be implemented to improve symptoms.
Debridement may be necessary for more severe pressure ulcers or those not responding to treatment. Compression hosiery is not indicated for pressure ulcers and should only be used after ankle-brachial pressure index testing in cases of venous ulceration.
Oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Topical fusidic acid with hydrocortisone is only indicated for mildly infected eczema or skin rashes and is not appropriate for pressure ulcers. The primary focus for managing grade II pressure ulcers is barrier protection and repositioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the breast clinic with a firm lump in her breast. She has never been pregnant and is a smoker.
What should be the next appropriate step?Your Answer: Mammogram and return to clinic if appropriate for further tests
Correct Answer: Triple test of clinical examination, ultrasound and fine-needle aspiration
Explanation:Triple Testing for Breast Lumps: A Comprehensive Approach
Breast lumps require further investigation through a process called triple testing. This involves a full clinical examination, imaging (mammography or ultrasound), and tissue biopsy (core needle biopsy or fine-needle aspiration). The results of each component are graded on a scale from E1 to E5 for examination, M1/U1 to M5/U5 for imaging, and C1 to C5 for aetiology.
If the lump is obviously a fibroadenoma, which is common in younger patients, it may not require further investigation. However, it is important to be confident in this diagnosis. If further investigation is necessary, a mammogram and return to the clinic for additional tests may be appropriate. In some cases, a lumpectomy may be necessary, but this is typically determined after the triple test has been completed.
Overall, triple testing is a comprehensive approach to investigating breast lumps and can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view?
Your Answer: Scaphoid
Explanation:Scaphoid Injuries and Diagnosis
The scaphoid is the carpal bone that is most commonly injured in the wrist, with only distal radius fractures being more frequent. These injuries are often misdiagnosed as sprained wrists, and they are most commonly seen in young men. To diagnose a scaphoid injury, routine radiographs are taken, including anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views. The AP view is done with a mildly clenched fist and the wrist in ulnar deviation, while the lateral view is done with the wrist in a neutral position.
When the scaphoid is injured, the lateral view will show a disruption of the alignment of the distal radius, lunate, and capitate bones, which should be collinear. If radiographs are negative despite clinical suspicion of a scaphoid fracture, the patient’s wrist is immobilized and radiographs are repeated in two weeks. If plain films continue to be negative but clinical suspicion remains, further imaging should be pursued.
Bone scan and computed tomography have been used with about equal accuracy to detect occult fractures, while polytomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can also be used, although they are more expensive. MRI can demonstrate much more anatomy and, because of increasing affordability, may soon become the standard for visualizing occult fractures and ligament disruptions. Overall, early and accurate diagnosis of scaphoid injuries is crucial for proper treatment and prevention of long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Radiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint about his penis. He explains that he experiences a noticeable curvature during erection, which has become more severe in recent years. He feels ashamed and worried that it could be cancerous.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Peyronie’s disease
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of Peyronie’s disease, a condition where fibrous tissue accumulates in the penis, causing it to curve or bend in a particular direction. This is a non-malignant connective tissue disorder that affects approximately 5% of men. The condition results in scar tissue forming in the tunica albuginea, the thick sheath of tissue surrounding the corpora cavernosa, leading to pain, abnormal curvature, erectile dysfunction, indentation, loss of girth, and shortening.
Bowenoid papulosis, on the other hand, is a rare pre-cancerous skin condition that causes the accumulation of red or dark papules on the penis, but does not cause curvature. It is linked to human papillomavirus (HPV) and can transform into invasive squamous cell carcinoma in a small percentage of cases.
Bowen’s disease is a neoplastic skin disease that causes a grey plaque to form on the penis or scrotum, usually affecting older men. It is an early stage or intraepidermal form of squamous cell carcinoma.
Penile lymphoma is unlikely in a young man without associated systemic symptoms, and a history of progressive curvature of the penis is more suggestive of Peyronie’s disease. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is another in situ squamous cell carcinoma of the penis that causes red patches to form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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