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Question 1
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What is the most suitable mechanism to describe the function of ezetimibe?
Your Answer: Inhibits cholesterol absorption
Explanation:How Ezetimibe Works to Lower Cholesterol
Ezetimibe is a medication that works by targeting the brush border of the small intestine. This is where it inhibits the absorption of cholesterol from the food we eat. By doing so, it helps to lower the levels of cholesterol in the body. This is particularly useful for people who have high cholesterol levels, as it can help to reduce their risk of developing heart disease and other related conditions.
To understand how ezetimibe works, it’s important to know that cholesterol is a type of fat that is found in many foods. When we eat these foods, the cholesterol is absorbed into our bloodstream and can build up in our arteries over time. This can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where the arteries become narrowed and hardened, which can increase the risk of heart attack and stroke.
Ezetimibe works by blocking the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine, which means that less cholesterol is able to enter the bloodstream. This helps to reduce the amount of cholesterol that is circulating in the body, which can help to prevent the build-up of plaque in the arteries. By doing so, ezetimibe can help to lower the risk of heart disease and other related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating in the week leading up to her period. She also experiences mild difficulty concentrating and occasional mood swings during this time, but not at any other point in the month. The patient has a medical history of migraines with aura and takes sumatriptan as needed, without known allergies. Although her symptoms do not significantly impact her daily life, she finds them bothersome and wishes to find a way to alleviate them. What is the most appropriate approach to managing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Advise regular exercise and small, regular meals rich in complex carbohydrates
Explanation:To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and consuming small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates every 2-3 hours. These changes are advised by the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology as a first-line management approach. It is also suggested to quit smoking, reduce alcohol intake, maintain regular sleep patterns, and manage stress levels. Contrary to popular belief, reducing dietary fats and carbohydrates is not recommended. Additionally, prescribing diazepam is not a routine management approach and is only used in select cases where anxiety is a significant symptom. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like sertraline can be used for severe premenstrual syndrome, but lifestyle changes are usually sufficient for mild symptoms that do not interfere with daily life.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of myalgia and brown-coloured urine. She has been diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis for the fourth time, and the cause is still unknown.
What investigation should be considered at this point?Your Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:Investigating Recurrent Rhabdomyolysis: Genetic Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of muscle fibers into the bloodstream. This can cause kidney damage and other complications. In some cases, rhabdomyolysis may be caused by genetic polymorphisms or mutations that affect processes such as ATP production and calcium movement. Patients who have had recurrent episodes of unexplained rhabdomyolysis, especially those without obvious traumatic, drug-related, or toxic cause, should be investigated for genetic causes. Muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases.
Other diagnostic tests may also be helpful in certain situations. For example, the Gal-1 PUT test can be used to diagnose galactosaemia, a rare genetic disorder that can cause rhabdomyolysis in infants. Renin and aldosterone levels may be useful if primary hyperaldosteronism causing hypokalaemia is suspected as the cause of rhabdomyolysis, but this is rare in children. GFR testing is only necessary if there is renal impairment, and haemodialysis may be necessary in cases of severe renal failure.
In summary, recurrent rhabdomyolysis should be investigated for genetic causes, and muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases. Other diagnostic tests may be helpful in certain situations, but their use should be guided by the patient’s clinical presentation and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
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A 65-year-old man presents for his regular diabetic eye screening. He had visited his GP recently and had his blood sugar levels under control. During the examination, cotton wool spots and neovascularisation are observed throughout the retina, leading to a diagnosis of proliferative retinopathy. What is the most effective treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Panretinal laser photocoagulation
Explanation:Panretinal laser photocoagulation is the preferred treatment for proliferative retinopathy, a condition characterized by the growth of fragile new blood vessels that can cause vitreal hemorrhage. In addition to controlling blood sugar levels and using anti-VEGF injections, thermal burns are made using a laser to prevent abnormal blood vessel development. Conservative management and monitoring are not sufficient for definitive management, as neovascularization can lead to serious complications. Laser iridotomy and phacoemulsification are not indicated for this condition.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
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A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
Examination reveals dehydration, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mmHg. Initial blood tests show: glucose 2.9 mmol/l, sodium (Na+) 126 mmol/l, potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l, urea 8.2 mmol/l, creatinine 117 µmol/l.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Medical Conditions: Addison’s Disease and Other Differential Diagnoses
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. The most common cause in the UK is autoimmune destruction of the adrenals, while worldwide tuberculosis is the most common cause. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or haemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function is not capable of coping with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone. Treatment of a crisis requires intravenous glucocorticoids, as well as supportive measures and fluid resuscitation.Differential Diagnoses:
Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps. Insulinoma causes hypoglycaemia, but the other features are absent. Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid, while Conn syndrome is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
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A full-term female neonate has bilateral palpable flank masses and oliguria and is in respiratory distress. The mother had little prenatal care, but a third-trimester ultrasound right before delivery showed severe oligohydramnios. An ultrasound of the neonate now shows multiple renal cysts and hepatic fibrosis.
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Neonatal Renal Conditions: A Comparison
Two common neonatal renal conditions are autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) and renal agenesis. ARPKD is characterized by the replacement of renal parenchyma with cysts, leading to renal failure and hepatic fibrosis. This condition typically presents in the neonatal period and can cause death perinatally or within the first year of life. In utero, ARPKD can cause oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia. On the other hand, renal agenesis is lethal in utero and is characterized by the absence of one or both kidneys.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is another renal condition that manifests later in life, typically between the ages of 15-30. It is caused by a mutation in ADPKD1 or ADPKD2 and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. ADPKD is characterized by renal failure and hypertension, as well as other associated findings such as liver cysts, berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis in the brain, and mitral valve prolapse.
Potter syndrome refers to oligohydramnios and resultant pulmonary hypoplasia seen with in-utero renal failure. This condition is a result of an underlying diagnosis, such as ARPKD.
Nephroblastoma is a rare condition that can present as a palpable flank mass in infants, but it is very uncommon in neonates. Renal ultrasound would show a solid mass, rather than multiple cysts.
In summary, neonatal renal conditions can present with various symptoms and have different underlying causes. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage these conditions to prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of factor V Leiden mutation and has smoked 20 packs of cigarettes per year. Upon examination, the patient has a fever of 38.0 °C, blood pressure of 134/82 mmHg, heart rate of 101 bpm, respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. Both lungs are clear upon auscultation. Cardiac examination reveals a loud P2 and a new systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The patient also has a swollen and red right lower extremity. An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken in the Emergency Department was normal, and troponins were within the normal range.
Which of the following chest X-ray findings is consistent with the most likely underlying pathology in this patient?Your Answer: Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe
Explanation:Radiological Findings and Their Significance in Diagnosing Medical Conditions
Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe
A wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe on a chest X-ray could indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage in a lung artery. This finding is particularly significant in patients with risk factors for clotting, such as a history of smoking or factor V Leiden mutation.
Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities
Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities on a chest X-ray could suggest acute respiratory distress syndrome or pneumonia. These conditions can cause inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray.
Rib-notching
Rib-notching is a radiological finding that can indicate coarctation of the aorta, a narrowing of the main artery that carries blood from the heart. Dilated vessels in the chest can obscure the ribs, leading to the appearance of notches on the X-ray.
Cardiomegaly
Cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, can be seen on a chest X-ray and may indicate heart failure. This condition occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body.
Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on PA chest film and opacities along the left lateral thorax on left lateral decubitus film
Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on a posterior-anterior chest X-ray and opacities along the left lateral thorax on a left lateral decubitus film can indicate pleural effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse and leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray. The location of the opacities can shift depending on the patient’s position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents due to his projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. You arrange a blood gas reading.
What is the metabolic disorder likely to develop in this patient?Your Answer: Hypochloreamic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalance in Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes projectile vomiting on feeding in newborns. This condition leads to a specific type of acid-base imbalance known as hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The loss of hydrochloric acid due to persistent vomiting results in a high pH and bicarbonate level, and a low chloride level.
The initial treatment for this condition involves resuscitation with sodium chloride, followed by surgical management once the chloride level has reached a near-normal level. It is important to note that persistent vomiting would not cause metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, hypochloremic acidosis, hyperchloremic acidosis, or hyperchloremic alkalosis. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
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A 25-year-old male without medical history presents to the emergency department following a high-speed car accident. He was discovered on the roadside after his vehicle collided with another car. He has been given morphine for pain relief and 500ml 0.9% NaCl as an IV bolus. He is alert but complaining of abdominal and back pain from the accident.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 55 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal without added sounds. Vesicular breath sounds are present throughout the chest with equal air entry bilaterally. He is peripherally warm with a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds. No external signs of bleeding are observed with full exposure.
A point-of-care ultrasound of the liver, spleen, kidney, and heart reveals no abnormalities. An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm without ST-segment or T-wave abnormalities. What is the most probable cause of his shock?Your Answer: Neurogenic
Explanation:Neurogenic shock can be a manifestation of spinal cord transection following trauma. This condition disrupts the autonomic nervous system, leading to a decrease in sympathetic tone or an increase in parasympathetic tone. As a result, there is marked vasodilation, which causes a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance. It is important to note that hemorrhagic shock is unlikely in this scenario, as there is no internal or external bleeding. Additionally, tachycardia would be present if the shock were due to hypovolemia. Septic shock is also unlikely due to the sudden onset of symptoms and absence of an infectious source. Cardiogenic shock is not the correct diagnosis, as there are no signs of tamponade on ultrasound and no arrhythmia present. The reduction in cardiac output is due to the interruption of the heart’s autonomic innervation, rather than a cardiac cause. Therefore, the shock is of neurological origin.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
Full blood counts showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Felty syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes
Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.
Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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