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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain usually occurs after running and is accompanied by occasional swelling and joint locking. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.6
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man presents to the Genetic Counselling Clinic along with his wife....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the Genetic Counselling Clinic along with his wife. They are concerned about the possibility of their baby inheriting an autosomal-recessive genetic condition for which the man's brother is affected. The carrier status of the wife is unknown.
      Both the man and his wife are unaffected by the condition; the condition in question has a carrier rate of 1 in 100 in the general population.
      What is the likelihood of the baby being affected by the condition?

      Your Answer: 1 in 200

      Correct Answer: 1 in 400

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Autosomal Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal recessive conditions require the presence of two mutated alleles for the disease phenotype to present. If one parent is a known carrier of the mutated allele, there is a 1 in 2 chance of passing on the mutated allele to their child, who would become a carrier of the condition. However, the child would not suffer from the condition unless the other parent is also a carrier and they happen to inherit both recessive alleles.

      The probability of the other parent being a carrier depends on the carrier rate in the general population. For example, if the carrier rate is 1 in 100, then the chance of the other parent carrying the recessive allele is 1 in 100. The chance of them passing on the affected allele to a child is 1 in 100 × 50% or 1 in 200.

      Therefore, the chance of a baby being affected by the condition, i.e inheriting two mutated alleles (one from each parent) and having the disease, is (1 in 2) × (1 in 200) = 1 in 400.

      If the father is known not to be a carrier, then the child will not be affected by the condition. However, if the father’s carrier status is unknown, there is a 1 in 100 chance of him carrying a recessive gene and a 1 in 200 chance of passing on this recessive gene.

      If both parents are carriers, the chance of the child having the condition is 1 in 4. It is important to understand these probabilities when considering the risk of inheriting autosomal recessive conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint of tremors. During the examination, the doctor observes a fine bilateral tremor in his hands that does not improve with intention. The patient's neurological examination is otherwise normal. Which of the medications he takes regularly is the probable cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is known to cause tremors, particularly a fine non-distractible rest tremor. This side effect is more common at higher doses and in cases of toxicity, but can still occur at treatment levels. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to manage acute anxiety and tremors, is unlikely to produce any motor effects from typical use. Mirtazapine, an antidepressant, can cause tremors but it is much less common than in other antidepressants. Olanzapine, an antipsychotic medication, can also cause tremors but they are usually coarse and affect the mouth and face. Based on the description of the tremor, it is more likely that lithium is the cause.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following vaccines utilizes an inactive form of the virus or...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vaccines utilizes an inactive form of the virus or organism?

      Your Answer: Influenza (intramuscular)

      Explanation:

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old bartender presents to the Emergency Department after ingesting a mix of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old bartender presents to the Emergency Department after ingesting a mix of pills following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently fluctuating between extreme happiness and anxiety or anger. She has a history of self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatric evaluation is requested to assess for a potential personality disorder. What is the most likely personality disorder diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder

      Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, often leading to personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, and anxieties about abandonment. Schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder are other types of personality disorders, each with their own unique symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is most consistent with borderline personality disorder. Understanding personality disorders is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals struggling with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of fever and night sweats. His parameters include a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, heart rate of 115 bpm and a temperature of 38.5°C.
      On examination, a murmur is elicited at the right upper sternal edge. Infective endocarditis is suspected and an echocardiogram is done which shows multiple vegetations on the aortic valve.
      Which of the following is the best next step to confirm the diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best management option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: No more testing required; sufficient criteria met

      Correct Answer: Two positive blood cultures drawn > 12 hours apart

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis: Criteria and Testing

      In order to diagnose infective endocarditis, the modified Duke’s criteria are used. One major criterion can be fulfilled by echocardiography and the other by blood cultures. If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, they need another major criterion or at least two other minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis. Two positive blood cultures drawn more than 12 hours apart fulfill the other major criterion, confirming the diagnosis.

      A chest X-ray is not necessary in this case, as it would not provide enough information to support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis.

      If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, one positive blood culture of an atypical organism would fit a minor criterion for diagnosis, but would not be enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Two positive blood cultures taken at the same time from different sites would not be appropriate, as they need to be drawn at least 12 hours apart to fulfill the major criterion. Even if this criterion is fulfilled, the patient would still need another major criterion or additional minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.4
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following is not included in the core Adolescent Health...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not included in the core Adolescent Health Promotion Program as outlined in the National Service Framework for Children?

      Your Answer: 8-9 month surveillance review

      Explanation:

      The regular surveillance evaluations that were conducted at 8 months, 2 years, and 3-4 years have been discontinued. Nevertheless, if a child is considered to be in a vulnerable situation, it is recommended to conduct more frequent assessments.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to pre-school age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. An ultrasound scan is also performed to detect any fetal abnormalities, and blood tests are done to check for neural tube defects.

      After birth, a clinical examination of the newborn is conducted, and a hearing screening test is performed. The mother is given a Personal Child Health Record, which contains important information about the child’s health. Within the first month, a heel-prick test is done to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks.

      In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is done at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention.

      In pre-school, a national orthoptist-led programme for pre-school vision screening is set to be introduced. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and attention to promote their health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for the past six months. During the examination, fasciculation and weakness are observed in both arms with absent reflexes. Additionally, increased tone and exaggerated reflexes are noted in the lower limbs. Sensation is normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

      Explanation:

      If you experience fasciculations, it may be a sign of motor neuron disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which is the most prevalent type.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with oral erythromycin & intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only

      Explanation:

      GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.

      If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.

      There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.

      (Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta agonist

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      67.7
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair thinning, fatigue, and dry skin. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Endocrine Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, Cushing syndrome, primary hypoparathyroidism, and secondary hypoparathyroidism are all endocrine disorders that can present with various symptoms. Hypothyroidism may cause cerebellar ataxia, myxoedema, and congestive cardiac failure, and is treated with replacement of thyroid hormone. Adrenal insufficiency may cause tiredness, weakness, and postural hypotension, among other symptoms. Cushing syndrome may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis. Primary hypoparathyroidism may cause hypocalcaemia symptoms, while secondary hypoparathyroidism may also present with hypocalcaemia symptoms. Treatment options vary depending on the specific disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that has been ongoing for three weeks. The stools are hard and contain a lot of mucus. The patient has no significant medical history. During a digital rectal examination, a suspicious mass is detected on the anal sphincter. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of rectum

      Explanation:

      The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with rectal cancer on the anal verge is abdominoperineal excision of the rectum. This procedure involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and a section of the sigmoid colon. Symptoms of rectal cancer include blood mixed with stools, changes in bowel habits, and copious mucus in stools. Haemorrhoidectomy is not the correct choice for this patient as the diagnosis is unlike. High anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumours, while low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumours, but not for anal verge tumours. Rubber band ligation is used to treat haemorrhoids in outpatient clinics, which is not the diagnosis for this patient.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      29.7
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a runny nose, and a decreased sense of smell that has been ongoing for three months. He has a history of seasonal allergies. Upon palpation of the maxillofacial area, tenderness is noted. No visible nasal polyps are present.
      What are the primary symptoms of chronic sinusitis?

      Your Answer: Symptoms lasting greater than four weeks

      Correct Answer: Facial pain and/or pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the sinuses that lasts for at least 12 weeks. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific symptoms that are indicative of chronic sinusitis. These symptoms include nasal obstruction, nasal discharge, facial pain and pressure, and loss of smell sensation.

      Facial pain and pressure are common symptoms of chronic sinusitis, and they are caused by congestion of the sinuses. Pain is typically felt over the maxillary, ethmoid, and frontal sinuses, which can be palpated by a doctor during an examination. Coughing is not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but it may be present in some patients and could indicate an underlying condition such as asthma or COPD.

      Nasal polyps are not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but they can be present in some individuals with this condition. The presence of nasal polyps indicates a variant of chronic sinusitis, which may require different management strategies.

      It is important to note that symptoms must last for at least 12 weeks without resolution before a diagnosis of chronic rhinosinusitis can be made. If symptoms last for less than 12 weeks, the criteria for chronic rhinosinusitis are not met. While patients may be experiencing chronic sinusitis before the 12-week mark, doctors must wait for this duration to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.6
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Correct Answer: Vincristine

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18.1
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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She has recently lost approximately 1.5 stone in weight by attending a weight loss program. During the examination, a firm lump is detected in her left breast that is not mobile but not attached to the underlying muscle. She recalls being hit by a squash ball in this area a few months ago. What is the probable reason for her lump?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      When a woman presents with a breast lump, fat necrosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis if there is a history of trauma to the area. This condition typically presents as a firm lump that may be accompanied by bruising. Fibroadenomas, on the other hand, are more commonly seen in younger women and present as a mobile but firm lump that can be easily moved during examination. Breast cysts are fluid-filled masses that may be detected if they are large enough and can fluctuate or transilluminate. Breast abscesses are typically seen in breastfeeding women and present as a hot, tender swelling. While breast cancer is unlikely based on the clinical history, all women with a breast lump should be referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis through triple assessment. It is important to note that intentional weight loss, as in this case, should not be considered a factor in the diagnosis.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      13.9
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a severely painful,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a severely painful, reddened right-eye that has been bothering him for the past 6 hours. He reports experiencing reduced visual acuity and seeing halos around light. The patient has a history of hypermetropia. Upon examination, the right-eye appears red with a fixed and dilated pupil and conjunctival injection. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by an increase in intra-ocular pressure due to impaired aqueous outflow. Symptoms include a painful red eye, reduced visual acuity, and haloes around light. Risk factors include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and age-related lens growth. Examination findings typically include a fixed dilated pupil with conjunctival injection. Treatment options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and increasing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.

      Anterior uveitis is an incorrect diagnosis, as it refers to inflammation of the anterior portion of the uvea and is associated with systemic inflammatory conditions. A key ophthalmoscopy finding is an irregular pupil.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it causes acute blindness due to thromboembolism or vasculitis in the central retinal vein. Severe retinal haemorrhages are seen on ophthalmoscopy.

      Infective conjunctivitis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it is characterized by sore, red eyes with discharge. Bacterial causes typically result in purulent discharge, while viral cases often have serous discharge.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain. She is admitted and all cardiac investigations are normal. She is diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
      Which of the following symptoms would most commonly require an urgent inpatient upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy before being discharged?

      Your Answer: Melaena

      Explanation:

      Melaena is a serious symptom of upper GI bleeding that requires emergency treatment. The patient must be stabilized and resuscitated before undergoing an upper GI endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Dysphagia is a red-flag symptom that may indicate oesophageal or gastric cancer and requires urgent investigation with an upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Epigastric pain without red-flag symptoms should be treated with PPIs for 4-8 weeks before any investigation is necessary. Vomiting with high platelet count, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper-abdominal pain requires a non-urgent OGD. Weight loss in patients over 55 years with reflux symptoms requires a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer, but not an urgent inpatient endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
      Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
      Investigation Result Normal value
      CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/”l, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/”l
      CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15–0.4 g/l
      CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6–4.5 mmol/l
      CSF–plasma-glucose ratio 0.72 ≄ 0.66
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/”l, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man has been receiving weekly intramuscular injections for rheumatoid arthritis for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been receiving weekly intramuscular injections for rheumatoid arthritis for the past 8 weeks. Routine urinalysis shows that he has a proteinuria.
      Which of the following is he most likely to have been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Celecoxib

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be treated with various drugs, including gold, infliximab, d-penicillamine, leflunomide, and celecoxib. Gold is given by injection and can cause side effects such as glomerulonephritis. Infliximab is administered intravenously and can lead to infections and autoimmune syndromes. D-penicillamine can cause proteinuria and is taken orally. Leflunomide blocks T cell expansion and can cause diarrhea, nausea, and abnormal blood test results. Celecoxib is an NSAID taken orally and can increase the risk of vascular events and gastrointestinal issues. Understanding the different drug categories and their side effects is important for effective treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Monitoring for side effects is necessary for all disease-modifying drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to be BRCA1-positive. What type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 Mutations and Their Association with Cancer

      BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are tumour suppressor genes that play a crucial role in repairing damaged DNA and preventing uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in these genes have been linked to an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic, and colorectal cancers. Ashkenazi Jews have a higher incidence of BRCA mutations, and women with a family history of breast cancer can be tested for these mutations. The risk of developing breast cancer is high for women with abnormal BRCA-1 or -2, but the risk for ovarian cancer is lower. There is currently no association between BRCA-1 mutations and cervical, endometrial, gastric, or lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with colon cancer through the national bowel cancer screening programme. He was adopted as a child and has no knowledge of his biological family's medical history.
      What is the most suitable genetic disorder to test for in this individual?

      Your Answer: Lynch syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lynch syndrome is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer by over 80%. It also raises the risk of other cancers such as endometrial, stomach, breast, ovarian, small bowel, pancreatic, prostate, urinary tract, kidney, and liver cancer. Genetic testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with colorectal cancer, regardless of age.

      Breast cancer (BRCA) mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and significantly increase the risk of developing breast, ovarian, prostate, and pancreatic cancer. These cancers tend to occur at a younger age than in the general population. While there is a possible link to colorectal pathology, other genetic syndromes should be considered first when looking for a genetic cause of cancer.

      Cowden syndrome is a rare genetic condition characterized by benign growths called hamartomas on various parts of the body. It increases the risk of developing breast, thyroid, or endometrial cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis is an autosomal dominant condition that causes widespread colorectal adenomas, with polyps usually developing in late childhood. This greatly increases the risk of colorectal cancer, and prophylactic colectomy is often performed. Screening is recommended for those with an affected first-degree relative or multiple polyps detected on colonoscopy.

      Von Hippel-Landau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes multiple benign tumors and cysts in various parts of the body, including the brain, spinal cord, eyes, adrenals, kidneys, and pancreas. It increases the risk of renal and pancreatic cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular, monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia on cardiac monitoring. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and has undergone percutaneous coronary intervention for his left anterior descending, right coronary, and circumflex arteries. Physical examination is unremarkable except for tachycardia, and there are no signs of myocardial ischemia on a 12-lead electrocardiogram. Which of the following management options should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia, which is the most probable diagnosis.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. If drug therapy fails, electrical cardioversion may be needed with synchronised DC shocks.

      There are several drugs that can be used to manage ventricular tachycardia, including amiodarone, lidocaine, and procainamide. Amiodarone is ideally administered through a central line, while lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment. Verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) may be conducted, or an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be implanted. The ICD is particularly indicated in patients with significantly impaired LV function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your clinic with a similar concern...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your clinic with a similar concern about a mass around her belly button that seems to increase in size when she coughs or strains. Upon examination, you diagnose an unobstructed umbilical hernia that is soft, nontender, and reducible.

      What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure mum that umbilical hernias usually resolve but if persisting at 2-3 years of age surgery may be considered

      Explanation:

      It is important to reassure the mother that umbilical hernias in newborns usually resolve on their own by the age of 3. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age, surgery may be considered. As there are no alarming symptoms currently present, urgent or routine referrals are not necessary. The use of laxatives would only be recommended if there is a history of constipation or faecal loading.

      Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment

      Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.

      Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.

      In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Correct

    • A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure Management

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve outcomes. Two drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers. Aspirin, on the other hand, is used to reduce the risk of mortality and further cardiovascular events following myocardial infarction and stroke, but it has no role in heart failure alone.

      Digoxin can be used for short-term rate control for atrial fibrillation, but long-term use should be approached with caution as it may lead to increased mortality. Furosemide is useful in managing symptoms and edema in heart failure, but it has not been shown to have a mortality benefit.

      Lidocaine and other antiarrhythmic agents are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure and should only be used with specialist support for ventricular arrhythmias in an unstable patient. Standard drugs such as digitalis and diuretics have not been shown to improve survival rates.

      Studies have shown that reducing left ventricular afterload prolongs survival rates in congestive heart failure. Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors are effective in inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, affecting coronary artery tone and arterial wall hyperplasia. There is also evidence for the use of beta blockers in heart failure management.

      In conclusion, proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with heart failure. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators have been shown to reduce mortality rates, while other drugs such as aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide have specific roles in managing symptoms and associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old patient complains of a painful bump on their eyelid. The lump...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of a painful bump on their eyelid. The lump has been there for about four days and is gradually getting bigger.

      During the examination, a tender, smooth lump is observed, measuring roughly 2 mm in size, emerging from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. The eye is not inflamed, and there is no periorbital or orbital redness, and the patient's visual acuity is normal.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Stye or Hordeolum

      A stye or hordeolum is an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid caused by inflammation in an eyelash follicle. It usually presents unilaterally and can take a few days to develop. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can cause watery eyes. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. However, if symptoms do not improve, referral to Eye Casualty for incision and drainage may be necessary. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis, and systemic antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Therefore, simple analgesia and warm compresses are the recommended management for a stye or hordeolum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 9.5
      2 15.0

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 36-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department after a severe car...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department after a severe car crash. Upon assessment, he appears to be in distress and responds to supraorbital pressure by opening his eyes and responds verbally with incomprehensible groans. The patient extends both arms when the trapezius squeeze is performed. What is his GCS score?

      Your Answer: 6

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this man is 6. His response to a painful stimulus (supraorbital pressure) is opening his eyes, which scores 2. His verbal response is groaning, which also scores 2. His motor response to pain is extension, which scores 2. Therefore, his overall GCS score is 6.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible allergic reaction to seafood he ate at a restaurant. He administered his adrenaline autoinjector and received an additional dose of intramuscular adrenaline from the paramedics.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.8ÂșC, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. He has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min and oxygen saturation of 93% on room air.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Further intramuscular adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      For patients with refractory anaphylaxis, which is characterized by persistent respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems despite receiving 2 doses of intramuscular adrenaline, the recommended next step is to start an intravenous adrenaline infusion. Administering further intramuscular adrenaline is not recommended. Intravenous chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are also no longer recommended in the updated guidelines for anaphylaxis management.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Haematology/Oncology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Passmed