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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
      Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions

      When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.

      Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.

      Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.9
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.1
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
      Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?

      Your Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients

      COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.9
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)

      Explanation:

      Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure

      When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.

      While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.

      Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20.5
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle

      The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.

      The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.

      When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      91.7
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test for allergens

      Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children

      Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.

      Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.

      In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.2
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  • Question 7 - A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
      What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax

      Explanation:

      Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:

      1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.

      2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.

      3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.

      4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.

      5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.

      6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.

      What is the more common name for this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atoll sign

      Explanation:

      Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud

      When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.

      Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.

      Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.

      The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.

      Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.

      Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in an elderly man who was found unconscious in his home, clutching an empty bottle of whiskey. On physical examination, he is febrile with a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg and pulse oximetry of 89% on room air. You hear crackles in the right lower lung base and note dullness to percussion in those areas. His breath is intensely malodorous, and there appears to be dried vomit in his beard.
      What is the most likely organism causing his pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed anaerobes

      Explanation:

      Types of Bacteria that Cause Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can be caused by various types of bacteria. One common cause is the ingestion of large quantities of alcohol, which can lead to vomiting and aspiration of gastric contents. This can result in pneumonia caused by Gram-negative anaerobes from the oral flora or gastric contents, which produce foul-smelling short-chain fatty acids.

      Other types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia include Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common cause of severe bacterial pneumonia requiring hospitalization. It is a Gram-positive, catalase-negative coccus. Staphylococcus aureus is a less common cause of pneumonia, often seen after influenzae infection. It is a Gram-positive, coagulase-positive coccus.

      Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires’ disease, a severe pneumonia that typically affects older people and is contracted through contaminated air conditioning ducts or showers. The best stain for this organism is a silver stain. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes an ‘atypical’ pneumonia with bilateral diffuse infiltrates, and the chest radiograph often looks worse than is indicated by the patient’s presentation. C. pneumoniae is an obligate intracellular organism.

      In summary, understanding the different types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and difficulty breathing that has been getting worse over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, he is not running a fever, has a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. During chest auscultation, the patient displays fine crackles in both lung bases. Additionally, a new audible systolic murmur is detected at the apex.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's pulmonary symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pulmonary Oedema

      The patient in question is likely suffering from flash pulmonary oedema, which can be caused by mitral valve regurgitation due to mitral valve disease. This is supported by the patient’s advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and the presence of a new systolic murmur at the apex. The backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary vasculature can lead to transudation of fluid into the pulmonary alveolar space, causing pulmonary oedema.

      While pericardial effusion could also lead to pulmonary congestion, it would likely manifest with Beck’s triad of distant heart sounds, hypotension, and distended neck veins. Pleural effusion, on the other hand, would result in quieter sounds on auscultation and dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia would be accompanied by a fever and crackles on auscultation, but would not explain the new systolic murmur. Finally, left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, such as aortic stenosis, would cause a different type of murmur at the right upper sternal border, which is not present in this case.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the sterile supplies group at her local hospital. Over the past few months, she has noticed increasing shortness of breath with cough and wheeze during the course of a working week, but improves when she takes a week off on holiday. On examination at the general practitioner’s surgery, after a few weeks off, her chest is clear.
      Peak flow diary:
      Monday p.m 460 l/min (85% predicted)
      Tuesday p.m 440 l/min
      Wednesday p.m 400 l/min
      Thursday p.m 370 l/min
      Friday p.m 350 l/min
      Saturday a.m 420 l/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Redeployment to another role if possible

      Explanation:

      Managing Occupational Asthma: Redeployment and Avoiding Suboptimal Treatment Options

      Based on the evidence from the patient’s peak flow diary, it is likely that they are suffering from occupational asthma. This could be due to a number of agents, such as glutaraldehyde used in hospital sterilisation units. The best course of action would be to redeploy the patient to another role, if possible, and monitor their peak flows at work. Starting medical management for asthma would not be the optimal choice in this case. Other causes of occupational asthma include isocyanates, metals, animal antigens, plant products, acid anhydrides, biological enzymes, and wood dusts. While salbutamol inhaler may provide temporary relief, it is not a long-term solution. Inhaled steroids like beclomethasone or fluticasone/salmeterol may help manage symptoms, but since the cause has been identified, they would not be the most appropriate course of action. A 7-day course of oral prednisolone would only provide temporary relief and is not a realistic long-term treatment option.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
      During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 14 - The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and...

    Incorrect

    • The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and HCO3– 44 mmol/l are indicative of a respiratory condition. Which respiratory condition is most likely responsible for these blood gas values?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Failure in Common Lung Conditions

      When analyzing blood gases, it is important to consider the type of respiratory failure present in order to determine the underlying cause. In cases of low oxygen and high carbon dioxide, known as type 2 respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most likely culprit. Asthma, on the other hand, typically causes type 1 respiratory failure, although severe cases may progress to type 2 as the patient tires. Pulmonary embolism and pneumonia are also more likely to cause type 1 respiratory failure, while pulmonary fibrosis is associated with this type of failure as well. Understanding the type of respiratory failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of these common lung conditions.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 15 - A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Types of Bronchial Carcinomas

      Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.

      Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.

      Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.

      Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.

      Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.

      Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.

      In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 16 - What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polygraphic sleep studies

      Explanation:

      Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition where breathing stops during sleep, causing frequent interruptions in sleep and restlessness. This leads to daytime drowsiness and irritability. Snoring is often associated with this condition. To diagnose sleep apnoea, a polygraphic recording of sleep is taken, which shows periods of at least 30 instances where breathing stops for 10 or more seconds in seven hours of sleep. These periods are also associated with a decrease in arterial oxygen saturation. the symptoms and diagnosis of sleep apnoea is important for proper treatment and management of the condition.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath and cough for the last two days. The patient reports feeling fevers and chills and although he has a chronic cough, this has now become productive of yellow sputum over the last 36 hours. He denies chest pain. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for which he has been prescribed various inhalers that he is not compliant with. He currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 143/64 mmHg
      Heart rate 77 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 90% (room air)
      White cell count 14.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 83 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Urea 5.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Physical examination reveals widespread wheeze throughout his lungs without other added sounds. There is no dullness or hyperresonance on percussion of the chest. His trachea is central.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest plain film

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, cough with sputum production, and widespread wheeze, along with elevated inflammatory markers. This suggests an infective exacerbation of COPD or community-acquired pneumonia. A chest X-ray should be ordered urgently to determine the cause and prescribe appropriate antibiotics. Treatment for COPD exacerbation includes oxygen therapy, nebulizers, oral steroids, and antibiotics. Blood cultures are not necessary at this stage unless the patient has fevers. A CTPA is not needed as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with PE. Pulmonary function tests are not necessary in acute management. Sputum culture may be necessary if the patient’s CURB-65 score is ≥3 or if the score is 2 and antibiotics have not been given yet. The patient’s CURB-65 score is 1.

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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of palpitations and breathlessness. She has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on metformin 850 mg bd, and longstanding hypertension for which she has been on therapy for several years. Her current medications include captopril 50 mg bd, furosemide 40 mg od, and nifedipine 20 mg bd. She recently consulted her GP with symptoms of breathlessness, and he increased the dose of furosemide to 80 mg od.

      On examination, the patient is overweight and appears distressed. She is afebrile, with a pulse of 120, regular, and a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are normal without added sounds or murmurs. Respiratory rate is 28/minute, and the chest is clear to auscultation. The rest of the examination is normal.

      Investigations:
      - Hb: 134 g/L (normal range: 115-165)
      - WBC: 8.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
      - Platelets: 199 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Sodium: 139 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110)
      - Glucose: 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.0-6.0)
      - Arterial blood gases on air:
      - pH: 7.6 (normal range: 7.36-7.44)
      - O2 saturation: 99%
      - PaO2: 112 mmHg/15 kPa (normal range: 75-100)
      - PaCO2: 13.7 mmHg/1.8 kPa (normal range: 35-45)
      - Standard bicarbonate: 20 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
      - Base excess: -7.0 mmol/L (normal range: ±2)

      What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calming reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Respiratory Alkalosis in Patients with Panic Attacks

      Patients experiencing hyperventilation may develop respiratory alkalosis, which can be managed by creating a calming atmosphere and providing reassurance. However, the traditional method of breathing into a paper bag is no longer recommended. Instead, healthcare providers should focus on stabilizing the patient’s breathing and addressing any underlying anxiety or panic.

      It’s important to note that panic attacks can cause deranged ABG results, including respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, healthcare providers should be aware of this potential complication and take appropriate measures to manage the patient’s symptoms. While paper bag rebreathing may be effective in some cases, it should be administered with caution, especially in patients with respiratory or cardiac pathology.

      In summary, managing respiratory alkalosis in patients with panic attacks requires a holistic approach that addresses both the physical and emotional aspects of the condition. By creating a calming environment and providing reassurance, healthcare providers can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 19 - An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The following results are from his arterial blood gas (ABG):
      pH 7.37 (normal range 7.35–7.45)
      pa(O2) 7.6 (normal range 10–14 kPa)
      pa(CO2) 8 (normal range 4.0–6.0 kPa)
      HCO3 37 (normal range 22–26 mmol)
      base excess +6 (normal range −2 to +2 mmol).
      Which of the following best describe this man’s blood gas result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABGs: A Five-Step Approach and Mnemonic

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a crucial tool in assessing a patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to interpreting ABGs:

      1. Assess the patient.
      2. Assess their oxygenation (pa(O2) should be >10 kPa).
      3. Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH < 7.35) or alkalotic (pH > 7.45).
      4. Assess respiratory status by determining if their pa(CO2) is high or low.
      5. Assess metabolic status by determining if their bicarbonate (HCO3) is high or low.

      To aid in understanding ABGs, the mnemonic ROME can be used:

      – Respiratory = Opposite: A low pH and high pa(CO2) indicate respiratory acidosis, while a high pH and low pa(CO2) indicate respiratory alkalosis.
      – Metabolic = Equivalent: A high pH and high HCO3 indicate metabolic alkalosis, while a low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis.

      Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a normal pH, high pa(CO2), and high HCO3, indicating renal compensation. In contrast, compensation for respiratory alkalosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease would show a low pa(CO2) and a high pH.

      Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a high pa(CO2) and a high HCO3, with a normal pH indicating full compensation and a mildly altered pH indicating partial compensation. Compensation for metabolic acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is not applicable, as this condition would present with low HCO3 levels.

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  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
      Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion

      Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.

      Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.

      Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.

      In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.

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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

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  • Question 22 - A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic collision (RTC). During examination, he is found to be tachycardic at 120 bpm, sweating profusely, and pale. His right side has decreased breath sounds and chest movement, and his trachea is deviated to the left. You are requested to insert a large-bore cannula.
      Where would you position it in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds

      Explanation:

      To treat a tension pneumothorax, emergency intervention is required. A large-bore cannula should be inserted into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side where breath sounds are decreased to relieve pressure in the pleural space. This is the correct location for needle decompression. However, it is important to note that definitive management involves inserting an intercostal chest drain. Inserting a needle into the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is incorrect for needle decompression, but it is where the chest drain will be inserted afterwards. Inserting a needle into the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with normal breath sounds is the correct space, but the wrong location and wrong side of the body. It would be challenging to insert a needle into this location in reality. Inserting a needle into the third intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the incorrect intercostal space. Similarly, inserting a needle into the sixth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the chest with decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the wrong intercostal space.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs

      Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.

      β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.

      α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.

      β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.

      Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive dyspnoea. On examination, his respiratory rate was 31 breaths per minute and his chest X-ray showed diffuse infiltrates in a bat-wing pattern. However, chest auscultation was normal. While staying in hospital, he developed sudden severe dyspnoea, and an emergency chest X-ray showed right-sided pneumothorax.
      What is the underlying disease of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Injection Drug User with Dyspnea and Chest X-ray Findings

      A young injection drug user presenting with gradually progressive dyspnea and a typical chest X-ray finding is likely to have Pneumocystis jirovecii infection, an opportunistic fungal infection that predominantly affects the lungs. This infection is often seen in individuals with underlying human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection-related immunosuppression. Other opportunistic infections should also be ruled out. Pneumocystis typically resides in the alveoli of the lungs, resulting in extensive exudation and formation of hyaline membrane. Lung biopsy shows foamy vacuolated exudates. Extrapulmonary sites involved include the thyroid, lymph nodes, liver, and bone marrow.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, pneumoconiosis, and pulmonary histoplasmosis, are less likely. COPD and pneumoconiosis are typically seen in individuals with a history of smoking or occupational exposure to dust, respectively. Cystic fibrosis would present with a productive cough and possible hemoptysis, while pulmonary histoplasmosis is not commonly found in Europe.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night sweats, and weight loss over the last six months. He has been coughing up phlegm and experiencing occasional fevers for the past month. A chest X-ray reveals a sizable (4.5 cm) cavity in the upper left lobe. What diagnostic test would provide a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sputum sample

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. The diagnosis of TB relies on various diagnostic methods. Here are some of the commonly used diagnostic methods for TB:

      Sputum Sample: The examination and culture of sputum or other respiratory tract specimens can help diagnose pulmonary TB. The growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions confirms the diagnosis.

      Blood Cultures: Blood cultures are rarely positive in TB. A probable diagnosis can be based on typical clinical and chest X-ray findings, together with either sputum positive for acid-fast bacilli or typical histopathological findings on biopsy material.

      Computed Tomography (CT) Scanning of the Chest: CT imaging can provide clinical information and be helpful in ascertaining the likelihood of TB, but it will not provide a definitive diagnosis.

      Mantoux Test: The Mantoux test is primarily used to diagnose latent TB. It may be strongly positive in active TB, but it does not give a definitive diagnosis of active TB. False-positive tests can occur with previous Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccination and infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria. False-negative results can occur in overwhelming TB, immunocompromised, previous TB, and some viral illnesses like measles and chickenpox.

      Serum Inflammatory Markers: Serum inflammatory markers are not specific enough to diagnose TB if raised.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic methods is often used to diagnose TB. The definitive diagnosis requires the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions.

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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

      Explanation:

      Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment

      When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.

      If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.

      It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.

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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. He also had a dry cough, but no fever. During examination, scattered wheeze and some expiratory high-pitched sounds were observed. The C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal, and the Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry results showed a Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 51%, Forced vital capacity (FVC) of 88%, and FEV1/FVC of 58%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bronchiolitis Obliterans: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options

      Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone bone marrow, heart, or lung transplants. It is characterized by an obstructive picture on spirometry, which may be accompanied by cough, cold, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest wall retraction, and cyanosis. The pulmonary defect is usually irreversible, and a CT scan may show areas of air trapping. Common infections associated with bronchiolitis include influenzae, adenovirus, Mycoplasma, and Bordetella. In adults, bronchiolitis is mainly caused by Mycoplasma, while among connective tissue disorders, BO is found in rheumatoid arthritis and, rarely, in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Treatment options include corticosteroids, with variable results. Lung biopsy reveals concentric inflammation and fibrosis around bronchioles. Other conditions, such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), drug-induced lung disorder, fungal infection, and pneumocystis pneumonia, have different clinical findings and require different treatment approaches.

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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old man has just been admitted to the medical ward. Two days...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has just been admitted to the medical ward. Two days ago, he returned from a business trip and his history suggests he may have caught an atypical pneumonia. While examining the patient’s chest clinically, you try to determine whether the pneumonia is affecting one lobe in particular or is affecting the whole lung.
      On the right side of the patient’s chest, which one of the following surface landmarks would be most likely to mark the boundary between the middle and lower lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sixth rib

      Explanation:

      Surface Landmarks for Lung Lobes and Abdominal Planes

      The human body has several surface landmarks that can be used to locate important anatomical structures. In the case of the lungs, the position of the lobes can be estimated using the oblique and horizontal fissures. The sixth rib is the most likely surface landmark to mark the boundary between the right middle and lower lobes, while the fourth costal cartilage indicates the level of the horizontal fissure separating the superior from the middle lobes of the right lung.

      In the abdomen, the tip of the ninth costal cartilage is a useful landmark as it marks the position of the transpyloric plane. This imaginary axial plane is important as it is where many anatomical structures, such as the pylorus of the stomach and the neck of the pancreas, are located. Additionally, the horizontal line passing through the centre of the nipple, known as the mammillary line, can also be used as a surface landmark for certain procedures.

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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
      What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach

      Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.

      Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.

      Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).

      Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (2/6) 33%
Passmed