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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a past medical history of anorexia nervosa complains of red crusted lesions located at the corners of her mouth and below her lower lip. What nutrient deficiency is she most likely experiencing?
Your Answer: Thiamine
Correct Answer: Zinc
Explanation:Angular cheilitis can also be caused by a lack of vitamin B2 (riboflavin).
Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica
Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), cognitive impairment, and more.
One specific type of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including the characteristic skin lesions, as well as other physical and cognitive impairments. It is important to recognize the signs of zinc deficiency and seek appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper management, individuals with zinc deficiency can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 31-year-old female patient visits the GP office with a concerning facial rash. She reports that the rash worsens after consuming alcohol and has not attempted any treatment before. During the examination, the doctor observes facial erythema, papules, and pustules scattered on the chin and cheeks, and telangiectasia of the lesions. The nasolabial groove is also affected, but there are no comedones. What is the best initial treatment for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, the most appropriate initial option is topical metronidazole. This patient, who presents with erythematous papules and pustules exacerbated by alcohol and telangiectasia, falls under this category. Oral tetracycline can be considered for severe or resistant cases, but it is not necessary for this patient. Oral doxycycline is a second-line treatment option for resistant cases, but it has potential adverse effects such as nausea, diarrhoea, oesophagitis, and increased photosensitivity. Oral isotretinoin and topical adapalene are not indicated for the management of rosacea symptoms and should be avoided. Topical hydrocortisone can even worsen rosacea symptoms and should not be used.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old male presents to his GP with a raised, patchy rash on his elbows and knees. The lesions have slowly developed over the past few months and are itchy but not painful. He mentions that the rash improved slightly during his recent trip to Morocco and he got temporary relief from the itch.
Upon examination, you observe well-demarcated, red, scaly patches on his elbow and both knees. The patient has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis and is currently taking naproxen and omeprazole.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's rash?Your Answer: Topical betamethasone + topical calcipotriol
Explanation:NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for review at her local general practice surgery. She has noticed a number of patches of pale skin on her hands over the past few weeks. The patient has tried using emollients and topical clotrimazole with no result.
On examination, a number of depigmented patches on the dorsum of both hands are noted. Her past medical history includes thyrotoxicosis for which she takes carbimazole and thyroxine.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is most appropriate before starting treatment?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: No further testing required
Explanation:Understanding Vitiligo: Diagnosis and Testing
Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition that causes depigmentation of the skin due to the loss of melanocytes. It is usually diagnosed based on clinical features, such as well-demarcated patches of depigmented skin. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for vitiligo, a punch biopsy may be used to obtain a skin sample for histological analysis in cases of suspected skin cancer or inflammatory skin disease. However, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo.
It is important to note that vitiligo is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions, such as type I diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While it can affect individuals of any age, it often arises before the age of 20 years and is equally prevalent in men and women. Itching and other symptoms are rare, and the changes may be more noticeable in individuals with light skin during the summer months.
In contrast, a radioallergosorbent test (RAST) is unsuitable for diagnosing vitiligo as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for diagnosing food allergies, inhaled allergens, and venom allergies. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, such as when the patient is taking antihistamines or has extensive eczema.
In summary, vitiligo is a clinical diagnosis that does not require further testing. While a punch biopsy may be used in certain cases, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo. It is important to be aware of the potential association with other autoimmune conditions and to monitor for any changes in skin pigmentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 76-year-old man, who lives alone, presents to his General Practitioner with an extensive itchy, red rash over the trunk, arms and legs, which has been worsening over the preceding three days. He has a past medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol.
On examination, he has an extensive erythematous rash covering much of his body, with evidence of scaling. He has a normal temperature, a blood pressure (BP) of 110/88 mmHg and a pulse of 101 beats per minute.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone
Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are frail and live alone, hospital admission is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. Topical emollients and steroids are key in management, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring for infection and dehydration. Oral antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue may be appropriate for psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An outpatient appointment is not appropriate for this patient due to his age and living situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?
Your Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.
Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.
There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.
In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?Your Answer: Hairless and pale skin on the lower legs
Correct Answer: Atrophie blanche
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes
Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:
Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Topical mupirocin
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.
The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.
Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?
Your Answer: Dry skin
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness burns affecting 45% of his body surface area. On the fourth day of his admission, he experiences severe epigastric pain accompanied by haematemesis, melaena, and haemodynamic instability. What is the probable cause of these new symptoms?
Your Answer: Curling's ulcer
Explanation:Curling’s ulcer is a type of stress ulcer that may develop following severe burns. It is characterized by the necrosis of the gastric mucosa, which is often caused by hypovolemia. Curling’s ulcers are associated with a high risk of bleeding and mortality. In contrast, a Cushing’s ulcer is a stress ulcer that can occur after severe head trauma. While acute pancreatitis may develop after severe burns, it is not typically associated with significant gastrointestinal bleeding. Similarly, a Mallory-Weiss tear is an unlikely cause of the observed bleeding, as there is no history of vomiting and the volume of bleeding is too high.
Pathology of Extensive Burns
Extensive burns can cause a range of pathological effects on the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. Additionally, the loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in protein loss and hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and is characterized by decreased blood volume and increased haematocrit. Furthermore, the extravasation of fluids from the burn site can lead to secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, and increase the risk of acute peptic stress ulcers.
In addition to these effects, extensive burns can also lead to ARDS and compartment syndrome in extremities with full-thickness circumferential burns. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can be healed by the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. On the other hand, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage.
In summary, extensive burns can have a range of pathological effects on the body, including haemolysis, plasma leakage, protein loss, hypovolaemic shock, secondary infections, ARDS, and compartment syndrome. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn, with superficial burns being healed by keratinocyte migration and full-thickness burns requiring skin grafts for optimal coverage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 27-year-old man has come back from a vacation at the beach in Tenerife with a fresh rash on his neck and arms. The rash consists of patches that are coppery brown in color and lighter than the surrounding skin. There is no itching or pain associated with the rash. When examined with a Wood's light, the affected areas show yellow-green fluorescence.
What is the recommended initial treatment for this skin condition?Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Ketoconazole shampoo is the recommended first-line therapy for treating pityriasis versicolor, a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur that commonly affects the trunk, neck, and arms following sun exposure. While the rash is usually asymptomatic, an emollient may help with any associated itch or irritation, but it is not sufficient to treat the underlying fungal infection. Oral antifungals like itraconazole may be necessary for extensive or unresponsive cases, but for limited non-extensive disease, ketoconazole shampoo is the preferred treatment. Topical steroids and vitamin D analogues are not effective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease is evaluated at a nursing home. She presents with tense blistering lesions on her legs, measuring approximately 1 to 3 cm in diameter, and reports mild itching. Her mouth and vulva examination are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:If there are blisters or bullae present without any involvement of the mucosal lining, the condition is likely to be bullous pemphigoid. However, if there is mucosal involvement, the condition is more likely to be pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.
To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.
It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white plaques on her vulva and inner thigh. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Lichen sclerosus is a condition characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly observed on the vulva of older women. While candida can also cause itching and white patches, it would not result in lesions appearing on the inner thigh as well.
Understanding Lichen Sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. This condition leads to the atrophy of the epidermis, resulting in the formation of white plaques. The most prominent feature of lichen sclerosus is the presence of white patches that may scar. Patients may also experience itching and pain during intercourse or urination.
Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually made based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present. Management of this condition involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. Patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, and routine follow-up is necessary to monitor for any changes.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advise against performing a skin biopsy if a diagnosis can be made on clinical examination. However, a biopsy may be necessary if the patient fails to respond to treatment or if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change. The British Association of Dermatologists also recommends a biopsy if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital lichen sclerosus, or if second-line therapy is to be used.
Understanding lichen sclerosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms or changes in their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?
Your Answer: Oral lymecycline
Explanation:Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments
Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.
Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms of her hands. She reports that these rashes tend to occur every summer. Despite trying over-the-counter emollients and antihistamines, there has been only marginal improvement. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other medical conditions and does not smoke.
During examination, bilateral vesicles are observed on the palms and sides of the fingers. The palms appear dry with areas of skin peeling, while the rest of her body is unaffected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis
Correct Answer: Pompholyx eczema
Explanation:Palmoplantar pustulosis is often accompanied by psoriasis on other areas of the body and is strongly linked to smoking. Unlike pompholyx eczema, the connection to high temperatures and humidity is not as significant. Scabies, which is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei, results in severe itching of the hands and web spaces but is typically not a recurring issue. Symptoms include linear burrows and erythematous papules rather than vesicles.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by high temperatures and humidity, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation by wearing gloves or protective footwear and avoiding exposure to irritants. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed a number of small 'spots' and 'bruises' on his legs that have developed over the past 2-3 days. He initially thought this was due to an allergy but it has not gone away. His son is described as being well apart from a cough he's had for the past 2 weeks.
On examination, he is apyrexial with a heart rate of 98/min. Examination of his ears, throat and chest is normal. There is no neck stiffness or abdominal masses. A number of petechiae are seen around his chest area as well as purpura on his lower legs and arms.
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Admit immediately to paediatrics
Explanation:If a child develops purpura suddenly, it is crucial to refer them for urgent investigations to rule out meningococcal disease and ALL. Although petechiae may occur in viral infections or due to increased pressure in the superior vena cava, purpura is never a normal finding in children. Therefore, immediate admission is necessary to exclude any serious underlying condition. In case of suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, antibiotics should be administered parenterally without delaying transfer.
Understanding Purpura: Causes and Symptoms
Purpura is a medical condition characterized by bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, resulting in a non-blanching rash. It is often caused by low platelets, but it can also be associated with bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease. In addition to the rash, smaller petechiae may also be present, which are tiny red or purple spots on the skin.
It is crucial to recognize purpura as it can indicate the presence of serious underlying diseases. In children, a new purpuric rash should be treated as an emergency and investigated immediately, as it may be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, parenteral antibiotics should be given before transfer.
The causes of purpura can vary depending on the age group. In children, it can be caused by meningococcal septicaemia, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, congenital bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, or non-accidental injury. In adults, it can be caused by immune thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia, or bone metastases), senile purpura, drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics), or nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C, and folate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash around her belly button during an antenatal check-up. She had no such issues during her previous pregnancy. Upon examination, blistering lesions are observed in the peri-umbilical area and on her arms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Explanation:Blistering is not a characteristic of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy.
Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common one is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which is characterized by an itchy red rash. This condition does not require any specific treatment. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, which is a pruritic condition that usually appears during the last trimester. The lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on the severity of the condition. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that causes pruritic blistering lesions. It usually develops in the peri-umbilical region and later spreads to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This condition is rarely seen in the first pregnancy and usually presents in the second or third trimester. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis
Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.
Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.
Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.
Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.
Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her shins that have been present for four months. The lesions are surrounded by telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica
Explanation:There is no association between erythema nodosum and telangiectasia in the surrounding area.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with extensive mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. The blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Blisters or bullae with no involvement of the mucosa may indicate bullous pemphigoid, while the presence of mucosal involvement may suggest pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of protein that helps cells stick together. This condition is more common in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration, which is often the first symptom. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also common, with flaccid, easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may develop months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign, which describes the spread of bullae following application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin, is also a common feature. Acantholysis, or the separation of cells in the skin, is seen on biopsy.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to help control the disease. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.
The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.
Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate
Explanation:When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past two to three weeks and is now unbearable. She mentions having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem.
You notice an erythematous, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 80 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
You draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip. Rubbing off the excess reveals several burrows.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Keratosis pilaris infection
Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Itching and Skin Lesions: Scabies, Atopic Dermatitis, Erythema Infectiosum, Folliculitis, and Keratosis Pilaris
A patient presents with itching between the web spaces and in the groin, which has been ongoing for three to four weeks. The patient reports sexual intercourse as a possible mode of transmission. The differential diagnosis includes scabies, atopic dermatitis, erythema infectiosum, folliculitis, and keratosis pilaris.
Scabies is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with itching after a delay of three to four weeks following skin-to-skin contact. A washable felt-tip can be used to identify the burrows of the scabies mites, and treatment involves a typical topical agent such as permethrin cream.
Atopic dermatitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents with a rash/itch on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Erythema infectiosum is a doubtful diagnosis, as it primarily affects children and presents with a slapped cheek appearance and other symptoms such as fever and headache.
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it presents with pinpoint erythematous lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It is also unrelated to sexual activity.
In conclusion, scabies is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms, and treatment with a topical agent such as permethrin cream is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.
Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.
Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.
The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.
It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.
It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis lichenoides
Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides
Explanation:Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.
Understanding Mycosis Fungoides
Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital
Explanation:Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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