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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Failure of development of the vas deferens

      Explanation:

      The vas deferens is a long tube that connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts. It acts as a canal through which mature sperm may pass through the penis during ejaculation.

      Most men with CF (97-98 percent) are infertile because of a blockage or absence of the vas deferens, known as congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD). The sperm never makes it into the semen, making it impossible for them to reach and fertilize an egg through intercourse. The absence of sperm in the semen can also contribute to men with CF having thinner ejaculate and lower semen volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22). How would you manage the patient at this stage?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics after blood cultures

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).

      The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      97.6
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult. Her blood investigations revealed: White cell count: 13 × 109/L, Haemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dL, Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): Normal Platelets: 140 × 109/L, INR: 6.0 Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal. Other investigations: An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal. An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Give prothrombin complex concentrate

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and observe

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.

      The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate.
      Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.
      If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.
      In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.

      If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      204.3
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  • Question 4 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs. Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinuria

      Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      92.7
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  • Question 5 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.

      Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
      It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

      LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
      Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

      Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

      Dosage and uses:
      LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

      Adverse effects:
      The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
      Less commonly it can cause:
      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
      Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
      Hypoaldosteronism
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TB adenitis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started earlier on in the day and is getting progressively worse. The pain is located on his left flank and radiates down into his groin. He has no history of this pain or any other condition. Examination reveals a gentleman who is flushed and sweaty but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s presentation with flank pain that radiates to the groin, we are suspecting renal colic. We should follow guidelines for acute renal management and prescribe IM diclofenac for immediate relief of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: about 2 per 1000

      Explanation:

      Annual incidence of DVT in the general population is about 1 per 1000 adults. So the most suitable answer is about 2 per 1000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphedema

      Explanation:

      Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      The following are conditions commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum:
      Inflammatory bowel disease:
      – Ulcerative colitis
      – Crohn’s disease
      Arthritides:
      – Rheumatoid arthritis
      – Seronegative arthritis
      Haematological disease:
      – Myelocytic leukaemia[8]
      – Hairy cell leukaemia
      – Myelofibrosis
      – Myeloid metaplasia
      – Monoclonal gammopathy
      Autoinflammatory disease:
      – Pyogenic sterile arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne syndrome (PAPA syndrome)
      – Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.

      The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics
      I: Membrane stabilizing agents
      IA: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
      IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine
      IC: Propafenone, Flecainide
      II: β blockers – Propranolol, Esmolol
      III: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, Sotalol
      IV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, Diltiazem
      V: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring treated with rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. He is commenced on streptomycin. Which among the following is the most likely neurological side-effect of streptomycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular damage

      Explanation:

      Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.

      Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
      The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
      Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
      Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with her husband. He is worried due to her depressed mood and her poor interaction with the baby. He describes her mood three days ago being much different. She was talking in a rapid and incoherent fashion about the future. The mother denies any hallucinations but states that her child has been brought into a 'very bad world'. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario warrants urgent admission and psychiatric evaluation as the mother seems to be suffering from puerperal psychosis.

      Post-partum mental health problems can range from the ‘baby-blues’ to puerperal psychosis.

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression:
      A 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30
      indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week
      score > 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’
      sensitivity and specificity > 90%. It includes a question about self-harm

      Postpartum psychosis has a complex multifactorial origin. Risk factors include a history of bipolar disorder, history of postpartum psychosis in a previous pregnancy, a family history of psychosis or bipolar disorder, a history of schizoaffective disorder or schizophrenia and discontinuation of psychiatric medications during pregnancy.
      Incidence rate: 2.6 per 1000 births.
      Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth
      Symptoms of puerperal psychosis include confusion, lack of touch with reality, disorganized thought pattern and behaviour, odd effect, sleep disturbances, delusions, paranoia, appetite disturbances, a noticeable change in the level of functioning from baseline, hallucinations and suicidal or homicidal ideation.
      The safety of the patient and new-born is of utmost importance, and thus, immediate hospitalization is warranted if there is a risk of harm to either one.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe – whilst they are secreted in breast milk it is not thought to be harmful to the infant
      There is around a 20% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He recently suffered a fracture of his right humerus with minimal trauma. The results of the blood tests, taken on his arrival, prompted the referral: Hb: 8.9 g/dL, WCC: 9.5 x 10^9/L, Plts: 140 x 10^9/L, MCV: 86 fL, ESR: 60mm/1st hour, Na+: 149 mmol/L, K+: 3.6 mmol/L, Urea: 15 mmol/L, Creatinine: 160 mmol/L, Calcium (corrected): 2.89 mmol/L, Albumin: 28g/L, Total protein: 89 g/L. X-ray of right humerus reported a possible pathological fracture. Which of the following investigations would help best in confirming the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis with anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, and raised total protein with low albumin is multiple myeloma (MM). Protein electrophoresis will confirm the presence of monoclonal band of paraprotein. Of note, a radioisotope bone scan is not a good test for picking up the lytic lesions of MM.

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for the C282Y mutation. Her ferritin is 927 mg/L (normal range 15-150), haemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (normal range 11.5-16) and aspartate aminotransferase 87 U/L (normal range <40). Which is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weekly venesection to drop her ferritin into the low-normal range

      Explanation:

      Venesection should be done (essentially blood-letting) to decrease the too-high ferratin level. IV Desterrioxamine would have the opposite effect. ASA does not have to do with ferritin. You do not just watch this and recheck. And you do not want to make the patient anaemic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
      In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks ago. She is currently passing 3-4 loose stools a day which normally contain a small amount of blood. Other than feeling lethargic she remains systemically well with no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy is performed which shows inflammatory changes in the ascending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Bloods show the following: Hb: 14.2 g/dL, Platelets: 323 * 109/L, WBC: 8.1 * 109/L, CRP: 22 mg/l. What is the most appropriate first-line medication to induce remission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      Given she is not showing signs of systemic illness, you do not need to treat for an acute flair (which would be steroids), but you need to put her on maintenance medication. Oral ASA would be the best option for this, it is first line. You cannot give rectal ASA because the location of her disease is in the ascending colon and the enema will not reach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following features is characteristic of immune thrombocytopenic purpura? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is characteristic of immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is a recognised association

      Explanation:

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) refers to thrombocytopaenia occurring in the absence of toxic exposure or other diseases associated with low platelets and involves IgG-type antibodies. It is characterised by normal or increased marrow megakaryocytes, shortened platelet survival, and the absence of splenomegaly. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) occurs commonly in association with ITP. Leukemic transformation, however, does not occur in ITP.

      In neonatal ITP, IgG antibodies are passively transferred across the placenta. The infant platelet count may be normal at birth but decreases within 12–24 hours. It is rarely severe enough to induce bleeding diathesis in the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.   Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
      In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.

      The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.

      Clinical criteria are as follows:

      Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea

      Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).

      At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 24 - Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A coronavirus

      Explanation:

      Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
      In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 25 - Choose the correct statement regarding leptin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding leptin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is produced mainly by the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Leptin, a 167–amino acid hormone, was discovered in 1994 and is secreted mainly by adipocytes. Plasma leptin levels are significantly correlated with body mass index (BMI) and the total amount of body fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old patient with diabetes is referred from the Emergency department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient with diabetes is referred from the Emergency department complaining of dizziness and vomiting. On examination he is alert and orientated, his pulse is 80 irregularly irregular and BP 160/90 mmHg. There is nystagmus on left lateral gaze and his speech is slurred. On examination of the limbs, you note intention tremor and past pointing. He is ataxic when mobilised. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar CVA

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation with slurred speech, intention tremor and past pointing, as well as ataxia and nystagmus, paired with a history of vertigo suggest the cerebellum as the site of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) or stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for 4 days. Fundoscopy of both eyes revealed cotton wool spots in both the retinas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV infection

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy findings of cotton wool spots and retinal tears, accompanied by a history of blurred vision, are characteristic of retinitis. Cytomegalovirus is known to cause retinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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