-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of heel pain that has been bothering him for four months. He mentions that the pain intensifies when he walks to and from work. The man has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and is being evaluated for diabetes mellitus. He has a medical history of asthma, generalized anxiety disorder, and Peyronie's disease.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action for his heel pain?Your Answer: Suggest simple stretch exercises, prescribe ibuprofen and review in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Suggest weight loss, simple stretch exercises and resting the heel
Explanation:To manage plantar fasciitis, it is recommended to start with rest, stretching, and weight loss if the patient is overweight. Stretching exercises targeting the plantar fascia and Achilles tendon should be done three times a day. Orthotics and NSAIDs can be used, but only after trying the initial measures. It is important to note that the patient has asthma, so prescribing ibuprofen would not be appropriate. While a 6 week review is appropriate, it should also include monitoring weight loss as a key factor in managing the condition. Therefore, weight loss should be considered as the best initial step, given the patient’s BMI of 29.
Understanding Plantar Fasciitis
Plantar fasciitis is a prevalent condition that causes heel pain in adults. The pain is typically concentrated around the medial calcaneal tuberosity, which is the bony bump on the inside of the heel. This condition occurs when the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot, becomes inflamed or irritated.
To manage plantar fasciitis, it is essential to rest the feet as much as possible. Wearing shoes with good arch support and cushioned heels can also help alleviate the pain. Insoles and heel pads may also be beneficial in providing additional support and cushioning. It is important to note that plantar fasciitis can take time to heal, and it is crucial to be patient and consistent with treatment. By taking these steps, individuals can effectively manage their plantar fasciitis and reduce their discomfort.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm
Explanation:When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.
What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?Your Answer: Fundal pressure
Correct Answer: Suprapubic pressure
Explanation:According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of joint pain in her left hand and a 'sausage-like finger'. She reports her only medication is prescription coal tar shampoo.
She is tender over the left distal interphalangeal joints with mildly swollen fingers. Her left index finger is diffusely swollen.
Observations show a heart rate of 82 bpm, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, a temperature of 36.8ÂşC, and 98% oxygen saturation on room air.
She has an x-ray of her hand performed.
What would be the most likely findings on imaging?Your Answer: Erosions with overhanging edges ('rat-bite' erosions)
Correct Answer: Periarticular erosions with bone resorption
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of swelling and pain in the distal interphalangeal joints and dactylitis suggest a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. This is further supported by her use of a prescription coal tar shampoo for psoriatic lesions on her scalp. Psoriatic joint disease can cause a distinct X-ray appearance known as a pencil-in-cup deformity, characterized by periarticular erosions and bone resorption.
In contrast, erosions with overhanging edges, also known as rat-bite erosions, are associated with gout and tophi, typically affecting the first metatarsal joint in the foot. Joint effusion may be present in the early stages of septic arthritis, which should be ruled out for any hot, painful swollen joint. However, the patient’s lack of systemic illness and unchanged swelling over time make septic arthritis less likely.
Osteoarthritis, a non-inflammatory degenerative arthritis that worsens with age, does not typically present with dactylitis and is characterized by X-ray features such as loss of joint space, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 8
Explanation:The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.
CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatient clinic due to a chronic non-productive cough. He is a non-smoker and reports no other symptoms. Initial tests show a normal full blood count and C-reactive protein, normal chest X-ray, and normal spirometry. What is the next most suitable test to perform?
Your Answer: Bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: Bronchial provocation testing
Explanation:Investigating Chronic Cough: Recommended Tests and Procedures
Chronic cough with normal chest X-ray and spirometry, and no ‘red flag’ symptoms in a non-smoker can be caused by cough-variant asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and post-nasal drip. To investigate for bronchial hyper-reactivity, bronchial provocation testing is recommended using methacholine or histamine. A CT thorax may eventually be required to look for underlying structural lung disease, but in the first instance, investigating for cough-variant asthma is appropriate. Bronchoscopy is not a first-line investigation but may be used in specialist centres to investigate chronic cough. Sputum culture is unlikely to be useful in a patient with a dry cough. Maximal inspiratory and expiratory pressures are used to investigate respiratory muscle weakness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur
Explanation:Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma
Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.
The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.
Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 25-year-old motorcyclist is brought into resus after a bike versus lorry road-traffic collision. Following a primary survey, he is believed to have multiple lower limb fractures. He is scheduled for a trauma CT scan. While preparing for transfer to the imaging department, the patient becomes agitated and lashes out at the nurse caring for him. The patient has become more confused and tries to bite the doctor who has attended to review him. A decision is made to intubate the patient to prevent them from causing further self-inflicted injuries.
What medication would be most appropriate to use?Your Answer: Suxamethonium
Explanation:Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs
Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.
While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.
It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.
Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.
Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.
De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.
The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)