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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old patient with prostate cancer is initiated on goserelin therapy. After a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient with prostate cancer is initiated on goserelin therapy. After a week of starting the treatment, he visits a nearby emergency department with complaints of aggravated lower urinary tract symptoms and newly developed back pain. What could have been done to prevent this deterioration?

      Your Answer: Joint therapy with corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Pretreatment with flutamide

      Explanation:

      In the initial phase of treatment, goserelin may lead to a temporary aggravation of prostatic cancer symptoms, known as the ‘flare effect’. This is due to an initial surge in luteinizing hormone production before receptor down-regulation occurs. To counteract this, flutamide, a synthetic antiandrogen, can be administered beforehand to mitigate the tumour flare by blocking androgen receptors. The sudden onset of back pain in this patient is a cause for concern and requires further examination to determine if spinal metastasis is present.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an uncomplicated delivery. Suddenly, she starts gasping for breath and appears cyanosed with a blood pressure of 83/65 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 33/min. She becomes unresponsive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and time frame mentioned in the question strongly suggest an amniotic fluid embolism, which typically occurs during or within 30 minutes of labor and is characterized by respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension. On the other hand, intracranial hemorrhage is usually preceded by a severe headache, while convulsions are indicative of eclampsia and drug toxicity. The symptoms experienced by the patient during normal labor would not be expected in cases of drug toxicity. Additionally, hypoxia is not a typical symptom of drug toxicity.

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is undergoing a dating ultrasound scan and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is undergoing a dating ultrasound scan and is found to be carrying monochorionic twins. Her midwife informs her that she will require frequent scans during her pregnancy. What is the primary purpose of ultrasound monitoring between 16 and 24 weeks gestation for this particular pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Correct Answer: Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is a common complication that can occur in monochorionic twin pregnancies. This happens when the two fetuses share a single placenta, allowing blood to flow between them. However, in TTTS, one twin (the ‘donor’) receives less blood flow from the placenta than the other twin (the ‘recipient’) due to abnormalities in the placental blood vessels. This can cause the recipient to become overloaded with fluid, while the donor may become anemic. Additionally, differences in urine production can lead to one twin having too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) and the other having too much (polyhydramnios), which can cause further complications. In severe cases, TTTS can even be fatal for one or both fetuses. To detect TTTS, ultrasound examinations are typically performed between 16 and 24 weeks of pregnancy, while after 24 weeks, the focus shifts to detecting fetal growth restriction.

      Multiple Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Multiple pregnancies, such as twins and triplets, have different incidences. Twins occur in 1 out of 105 pregnancies, while triplets occur in 1 out of 10,000 pregnancies. Twins can be either dizygotic or monozygotic, with the former being more common at 80%. Monoamniotic monozygotic twins have higher risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, and prematurity. Twin-to-twin transfusions may occur, which require laser ablation of interconnecting vessels.

      Dizygotic twins are becoming more common due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilization, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean. Antenatal complications may arise, such as polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and anemia, while fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations.

      During labor, complications may occur, such as postpartum hemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement. Management includes rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labor, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most twins are induced at 38-40 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.6
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  • Question 4 - Which diuretic inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl- in the thick ascending limb of...

    Correct

    • Which diuretic inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl- in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, inhibit the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl− in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentration in the filtrate and massive diuresis.

      Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone, act as aldosterone antagonists, causing an increase in sodium excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.

      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, resulting in a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, like acetazolamide, increase bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. While not commonly used as a diuretic, it is used to treat glaucoma, prevent altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

      Mannitol is a strong diuretic that remains in the lumen in a high concentration and retains water in the collecting systems by osmotic effect. Its use is controversial, but it is thought to reduce intracranial pressure by osmotically extracting water from CSF and brain parenchyma into the blood.

      Understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals choose the appropriate medication for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the past few months. She reports difficulty getting up from a chair and climbing stairs, which worsens throughout the day and especially with prolonged walking. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. During the review of her systems, she mentions a loss of appetite and weight loss, as well as a worsening cough that led to one episode of haemoptysis two weeks ago. On examination, there are no clear signs of ptosis, diplopia, or dysarthria. The doctor considers a list of differential diagnoses.
      Which antibody is most likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their associated conditions

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune condition affecting skeletal muscle and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung. The causative autoantibody is against voltage-gated calcium channels. Clinical features include insidious and progressive onset of proximal muscular weakness, particularly in the legs, and autonomic involvement.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is associated with anti-RNP antibodies. Common presenting features include general malaise and lethargy, arthritis, pulmonary involvement, sclerodactyly, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and myositis.

      Myasthenia gravis is a long-term autoimmune disease affecting skeletal muscle associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. It causes fatigable weakness, and oculopharyngeal and ocular muscles are usually prominently affected.

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a vasculitic condition associated with c-ANCA antibodies. It often presents with renal impairment, upper airway disease, and pulmonary haemorrhage and pneumonia-like infiltrates.

      Thyrotropin receptor antibody is an indicator for Graves’ disease, which causes hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents with jaundice and significant abdominal distention. The patient does not drink, and smokes ten cigarettes a day.
      On examination, the patient is found to have ascites and hepatomegaly. The patient is admitted for further investigations; the results of one tumour marker test is suggestive of a possible hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
      Which of the following tumour markers is usually raised in primary HCC?

      Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour Markers: Types and Associated Cancers

      Tumour markers are compounds whose blood levels increase due to the presence of a particular malignant tumour. They are useful for diagnosis and detecting recurrence. However, they are not always specific, and different tumours may secrete the same marker. Here are some common tumour markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): Associated with liver and testicular cancers.

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): Associated with prostate cancer.

      Chemical nature Name Associated tumour
      Enzyme PSA
      NSE
      LDH Prostate
      Small cell lung cancer
      Non-specific, mainly haematological
      Hormone HCG
      Calcitonin
      Parathormone Testes
      Medullary thyroid carcinoma
      Parathyroid carcinoma
      Immunoglobulin IgG, IgA, etc. Multiple myeloma
      Glycoprotein AFP
      CA-125
      CA-19-9
      CA-15-3
      CEA Liver, also testes
      Ovary
      Pancreas
      Breast
      Colon, stomach

      However, not all primary liver malignancies have AFP as a tumour marker. Certain types of liver malignancy, such as fibrolamellar carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and hepatic angiosarcoma, do not secrete this protein. The first two usually occur in young persons. Hepatomas can occur de novo but are usually present because of an underlying disease such as hepatitis B infection (chronic) or cirrhosis of the liver. Alcoholism, aflatoxin, and obesity are also risk factors for hepatoma.

      CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer, CA-19-9 with pancreatic cancer, and HCG with testicular cancer. Understanding tumour markers and their associated cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

      The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis

      Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with pneumonia. She has extensive comorbidities...

    Correct

    • A 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with pneumonia. She has extensive comorbidities and following a discussion with her family, treatment is withdrawn. She dies six days after admission, and you are asked to complete her cremation form.
      Prior to cremation, what needs to be reported and checked?

      Your Answer: Pacemaker

      Explanation:

      Implants and Cremation: What Needs to be Reported and Checked

      Implants such as pacemakers, implantable defibrillators, cardiac resynchronization devices, and ventricular assist devices can potentially cause explosions during cremation. Therefore, it is important for the first and second signing doctors to confirm the presence of these devices and inform the bereavement office prior to cremation. This information should also be documented on the cremation forms. However, porcine implants and fake eyes do not pose any restrictions to cremation. Knee implants are also not on the list of problematic implants, while programmable ventricular peritoneal shunts should be reported. Non-programmable shunts, on the other hand, do not need to be checked prior to cremation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 9-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by his parents due...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by his parents due to several hours of profuse vomiting. The vomit is thick and green in colour, and the infant has not had any wet nappies in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the infant appears distressed and is crying. An abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen and absent bowel sounds. The infant has no significant medical history, and the pregnancy and delivery were uneventful. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intestinal malrotation

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for an infant presenting with bilious vomiting and signs of obstruction is intestinal malrotation. This condition occurs when the bowel fails to loop efficiently during development, leading to an increased risk of volvulus and obstruction. The green color of the vomit is caused by conditions that cause intestinal obstruction distal to the ampulla of Vater. Biliary atresia, intussusception, and oesophageal atresia are other pediatric conditions that may cause vomiting, but they present with different symptoms and are not associated with bilious vomiting and obstruction.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is overweight and has a history of hypertension, which is currently being treated. He does not smoke and drinks very little alcohol. His blood pressure is 129/80 mmHg and his BMI is 30 kg/m2. Upon conducting fasting blood tests, the following results were obtained: glucose 8.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), total cholesterol 6.7 mmol/L (<5.2), triglycerides 9.3 mmol/L (0.45-1.69), HDL 1.3 mmol/L (>1.55), and LDL unable to calculate due to high triglycerides. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and was referred to a dietitian and practice nurse for further management.

      Nine months later, the patient returned for a follow-up appointment. He had been taking fenofibrate 160 mg OD and metformin 1g BD for the past three months and had lost some weight, bringing his BMI down to 28 kg/m2. A repeat lipid profile was conducted and compared to the previous results. The cholesterol level had decreased from 5.4 to 3.9 (<5.2), triglycerides had decreased from 3.7 to 1.5 (0.45-1.69), HDL had decreased from 1.2 to 0.5 (1.55), and calculated LDL had increased from 2.5 to 2.72 (<3.36). The patient's low HDL level was a cause for concern.

      What is the likely cause of the patient's low HDL level?

      Your Answer: Reduced visceral adiposity induced by metformin

      Correct Answer: Fibrate therapy

      Explanation:

      Fibrates and Low HDL in Diabetic Patients

      This phenomenon is not commonly seen, but it is becoming more prevalent in diabetic patients who are prescribed fibrate therapy. The cause of this occurrence is not yet understood, but it typically resolves once the fibrate medication is discontinued. Low HDL levels are now considered a crucial factor in reducing cardiovascular risk. Although low HDL is a characteristic of metabolic syndrome, it is expected to be present at the time of diagnosis and to increase with weight loss. Weight loss may also lead to an increase in HDL levels. HDL is measured independently of total cholesterol, and reducing visceral adiposity may help to increase HDL levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      55.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed