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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care team to determine his analgesic requirements. He is currently on a regimen of 30 mg slow-release morphine twice daily, which effectively manages his pain. However, he is experiencing difficulty swallowing both tablet and liquid forms of the medication. The palliative team suggests transitioning him to subcutaneous morphine. What is the appropriate daily dosage for him?
Your Answer: 60mg
Correct Answer: 30mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old baby is seen in surgery with decreased feeding and a temperature of 38.8°C.
Which of the following is the appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to the paediatric on-call team
Explanation:Management of Fever in a High-Risk Child
When managing a child with fever, it is important to consider their age and any accompanying symptoms. According to the NICE guideline on ‘Fever in under 5s’, children aged <3 months with a temperature of 38°C are at high risk for serious illness. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child urgently to a paediatric specialist. Encouraging fluids may be useful, but it should not be relied upon to rule out serious underlying illness. Similarly, antipyretics may be given before the child is seen by the paediatric team, but it is important to consult the NICE guideline for appropriate dosages. Blind prescription of oral antibiotics or IM benzylpenicillin is not recommended without a clear source of infection and discussion with the on-call paediatric team. Therefore, it is crucial to refer high-risk children to the paediatric on-call team for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during an outpatient clinic visit. The patient complains of weight loss and a painless, enlarging sore on the penis that has been present for more than two months. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Penile cancer can manifest as an ulcer. The most prevalent form of penile cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma. While stress ulcers cause abdominal pain and bleeding, they are not responsible for this presentation. Herpes outbreaks can be triggered by significant stress, but they typically cause painful lesions that heal within a week. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can result in a painless ulcer called a chancre, but it does not cause weight loss, and the lesion usually resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are asked to review an 80-year-old woman in the clinic who has been referred by her GP due to weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. On examination, the GP notes a palpable left supraclavicular node and an epigastric mass, but no jaundice. There is microcytic anaemia, with normal liver enzymes. Her past history includes excess consumption of alcohol and a 30-pack-year smoking history.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:Gastric carcinoma is the most common type of gastric malignancy, with adenocarcinoma accounting for 90-95% of cases. Risk factors include smoking and excessive alcohol consumption. Early gastric cancer may not present with any symptoms, while advanced disease may cause indigestion, anorexia, weight loss, early postprandial fullness, and a palpable enlarged stomach with succussion splash. Troisier’s sign, the presence of a hard and enlarged left-sided supraclavicular lymph node, suggests metastatic abdominal malignancy.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) presents with a pulsatile epigastric mass, but not an enlarged supraclavicular node. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless there is an aneurysm leak, which causes abdominal and/or back pain and rapid deterioration.
Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignant tumor of the bile duct, typically presents with jaundice, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Normal liver function tests make this diagnosis unlikely.
Benign gastric ulcers cause epigastric pain, usually a burning sensation postprandially. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, anorexia, and lymphadenopathy, suggest malignant pathology.
Crohn’s disease, a chronic inflammatory bowel disease, can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Gastroduodenal Crohn’s disease presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, dyspepsia, nausea, and vomiting. However, the examination findings in this patient make a malignant diagnosis more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits the GP clinic as she hasn't had her menstrual period for 3 months. Upon conducting a urinary pregnancy test, it comes out positive. A dating scan is scheduled, which shows a gestational sac with a nonviable foetus. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting a Nexplanon implant. What adverse effect should she be informed about during counselling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular menstrual bleeding
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Neuropathic pain typically does not improve with opioids. Nevertheless, if conventional treatments have been ineffective, which opioid should be considered for initiation in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.
Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
Which symptom is he reporting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessions
Explanation:Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference
Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:
Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.
Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.
Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.
Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.
Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care
After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of increasing fatigue, itchy skin, and pain in the upper right side of her abdomen. She has a medical history of autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism and coeliac disease. The doctor suspects that she may have primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). What is the first test that should be ordered for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Tests for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system. It can lead to the destruction of small bile ducts and eventually cirrhosis. While it may be asymptomatic in the early stages, symptoms such as fatigue, abdominal pain, and dry eyes may develop over time. To diagnose PBC, a blood test for anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most appropriate first step. If positive, a liver ultrasound scan and biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. Other tests, such as an MRI scan or tests for anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies, are not used in the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for her annual medication review. Her regular medications are levothyroxine 75 µg, lisinopril 10 mg and she has recently completed a course of ibuprofen tablets. She has been feeling tired and sluggish recently with frequent headaches. Examination reveals she has gained 2 kg since her last review, blood pressure is 142/78 mmHg, pulse is 88 bpm and she has a dry skin. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests are normal. Her thyroid-function test (TFT) results are: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 mU/l (0.25–4.0 mU/l) Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (12.0–22.0 pmol/l) What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce levothyroxine dose
Explanation:The patient is experiencing hyperthyroidism due to an excess of levothyroxine replacement. It is important to reduce the dose of levothyroxine and monitor the patient with regular blood tests until they become euthyroid again. Starting carbimazole or increasing the dose of levothyroxine is not recommended as it could lead to further complications. Propylthiouracil is only used in cases of thyrotoxic storm and radio-iodine therapy is not necessary in this case as the hyperthyroidism is due to over-replacement of levothyroxine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Methimazole (MMI) has a modest therapeutic advantage over carbimazole in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis.
Which of the following properties causes this?
Select the SINGLE property from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion
Explanation:Comparison of PTU and Carbimazole in the Treatment of Hyperthyroidism
PTU and carbimazole are two commonly used medications in the treatment of hyperthyroidism. While both drugs are effective in reducing thyroid hormone levels, there are some differences in their mechanisms of action and adverse effects.
One advantage of PTU over carbimazole is its ability to inhibit the conversion of T4 to the more active form T3. This is due to its inhibition of the enzyme 5′-deiodinase. However, both drugs inhibit the organification of iodine at the thyroid gland by inhibiting the enzyme thyroperoxidase.
While both drugs are present in breast milk, the amount is likely too small to affect the infant. However, high doses may impact neonatal thyroid function, so monitoring is necessary.
Carbimazole is considered to be at least 10 times as potent as PTU. Additionally, the two drugs have different chemical structures and therefore have slightly different adverse effects profiles. Common side effects include rash, hair loss, and skin pigmentation, while rare but serious side effects include aplastic anaemia, agranulocytosis, and fulminant liver failure.
Patients taking either medication should be aware of the signs of liver disease and seek medical attention if they experience symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, or pruritus. Regular liver function monitoring is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are assessing an 80-year-old man who has a medical history of hypothyroidism, Parkinson's disease, and depression. His conditions are well-managed with levothyroxine, co-careldopa, and citalopram. He reports experiencing symptoms indicative of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What medication should be avoided to manage his symptoms effectively?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Patients with Parkinsonism should not take metoclopramide due to its dopamine antagonist properties, which can exacerbate their symptoms.
Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.
However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.
Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen. Additionally, he has bipolar disorder and takes lithium and sodium valproate orally. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, and blurred vision. On examination, his vital signs are normal, but he exhibits a coarse tremor and muscle twitching. Neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia, and his abdomen is mildly tender without signs of peritonitis. He mentions that he is fasting for religious reasons but continues to take all of his medication. What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity
Explanation:Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, coarse tremor, weakness, seizures, muscle twitches, and blurred vision. This patient is likely experiencing lithium toxicity due to dehydration from fasting, resulting in high serum lithium levels. The normal range is 0.4-1.0, and toxicity symptoms occur when levels exceed 1.5. It is important to avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications like ibuprofen, as they can decrease lithium excretion. Common side effects of lithium include a fine tremor, metallic taste in the mouth, thirst, polyuria, and weight gain. Sodium valproate can cause hair loss, nausea, diarrhoea, weight gain, drowsiness, and a small increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Symptoms of sodium valproate toxicity include central nervous system depression, ataxia, tachycardia, and electrolyte disturbances. Although ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, it is not responsible for most of this patient’s symptoms and is therefore an incorrect answer.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences intermittent episodes of epistaxis. Blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
- Platelets: 52 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- Prothrombin time (PT): 23 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 46 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
- Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (normal range: 2 - 4)
- D-Dimer: 1203 ng/mL (normal range: < 400)
Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the expected findings on a blood film?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistocytes
Explanation:The presence of schistocytes is indicative of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a condition where the coagulation pathways are activated, leading to a procoagulant state. It can be triggered by various factors, including acute illness. The patient’s blood tests show a depletion of platelets and coagulation factors, which is typical of DIC. However, elliptocytes, Heinz bodies, and Howell-Jolly bodies are not expected in DIC. Elliptocytes are usually seen in conditions like iron deficiency and thalassemia, while Heinz bodies are associated with alpha-thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies are characteristic of decreased splenic function, such as post-splenectomy.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic with a concern about a lesion on her vulva that has been present for 2 weeks. She has no medical history, takes no regular medications, and has no known allergies. On examination, a single ulcer is found on the left labia majora, but the patient reports no pain and the rest of the examination is unremarkable. She has been having regular, unprotected oral and vaginal intercourse with her husband of 4 years. What is the most suitable management for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM benzathine benzylpenicillin
Explanation:The correct treatment for primary syphilis, which is often associated with painless ulceration, is IM benzathine benzylpenicillin. This patient’s presentation of a single painless ulcer on a background of unprotected intercourse is consistent with primary syphilis, and it is important to not rule out sexually transmitted infections even if the patient has a regular partner. IM ceftriaxone, oral aciclovir, and oral azithromycin are all incorrect treatment options for primary syphilis.
Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.
During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.
The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.
In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.
Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother of a 5-year-old child with cystic fibrosis (CF) visits the clinic to inquire about the likelihood of having another child with CF. She is still with the same partner as before. What is the probability of them having another child with CF?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients
Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate canthotomy
Explanation:In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.
A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.
B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.
Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.
Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.
Ocular Trauma and Hyphema
Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.
To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is no one-size-fits-all solution for managing it. Which of the following is the best statement about migraine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Over half of all patients have their first attack before the age of 20
Explanation:Understanding Migraines: Facts and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraines are a common neurological disorder that affects people of all ages. Here are some important facts to know about migraines:
– The first attack of migraine often occurs in childhood or teenage years, with over half of all patients experiencing their first attack before the age of 20.
– Migraine attacks can last for a few hours to several days, with the International Headache Society diagnostic criteria requiring at least five episodes of headache lasting 4-72 hours.
– While aura is estimated to accompany headache in only a quarter to a third of patients, over half of all patients experience aura before the headache.
– Migraine is classically described as a unilateral, pulsating headache, but subsequent migraines can affect the same side or be bilateral.
– The release of vasogenic amines from blood vessel walls, accompanied by pulsatile distension, is believed to be responsible for migrainous attacks.
– A good history is important in diagnosing migraines, as patients may self-diagnose and overlook other factors such as combined oral contraception.In summary, migraines are a complex neurological disorder that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Understanding the facts and diagnostic criteria can help with proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 14-year-old daughter to the general practice with concerns about her delayed onset of periods. During the examination, the daughter is found to be in the 9th percentile for her age in terms of height, has short ring fingers, poor breast development, and a high arched palate. While listening to her heart, a crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard on the upper right sternal border that radiates to the carotids. What is the probable cause of this murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicuspid valve
Explanation:A 16-year-old girl presents with symptoms of shortness of breath, chest pain, and fatigue. Upon examination, a heart murmur is detected in the aortic region, which is described as a crescendo-decrescendo murmur. The possible causes of this murmur are considered, including aortic stenosis, aortic valve calcification, rheumatic heart disease, and Tetralogy of Fallot. However, based on the patient’s age and symptoms, aortic stenosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.
Organisms causing meningitis in children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.
From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of fevers, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy that had been going on for 8 days. A positive monospot test was obtained. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein bar virus (EBV) is usually a self-limiting condition that lasts for approximately 2 weeks in individuals with a healthy immune system. Treatment options such as aciclovir, penicillin V, clarithromycin, and valganciclovir are not effective for treating EBV.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy
Explanation:Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old construction worker visits his GP complaining of elbow swelling that has been present for three weeks. He reports that it started gradually and has no known triggers. The area is painful and warm to the touch, but he has no swelling in other parts of his body and feels generally well. The patient has a history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is taking methotrexate, and has no other medical conditions. During the examination, the doctor detects a tender, soft, fluctuant mass on the back of the patient's elbow. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. Inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows. The condition can be categorized as septic or non-septic depending on whether an infection is present.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, while some may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. Patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-colored bursal fluid favors a non-infective cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman attends a routine cervical smear test and is noted to have extensive scarring of her vulva. On further questioning, she reports several visits to the Sexual Health Clinic for recurrent episodes of painful vulval ulceration.
She has had several attendances at the dentist and General Practitioner with recurrent painful mouth ulcers. She has been referred to a dermatologist to investigate a painful nodular rash which developed on her shins several weeks ago but has since resolved. She was recently discharged from the Eye Clinic following treatment for an acutely painful red eye.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Behçet’s disease is a rare autoimmune condition that causes painful recurrent mouth and genital ulcers leading to scarring. Diagnosis is often delayed due to the absence of a definitive diagnostic test. This patient has had a rash associated with Behçet’s disease and an episode of acute red eye, which may have been anterior uveitis, another symptom of the condition. Herpes simplex infection, Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, and lichen planus are all conditions that can cause similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the patient’s medical history and physical examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication for a painful and swollen knee joint two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Common Medications and their Association with Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis
Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the renal tubules and interstitium, often caused by medications. Here are some common medications and their association with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis:
1. Prednisolone: This medication is safe to continue as it is already used as a management option for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.
2. Allopurinol: This medication should be discontinued as it is known to cause acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.
3. Amoxicillin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is one of the most common drug-related causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and may need to be withdrawn.
4. Diclofenac: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as diclofenac, are another common cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be stopped in any form of acute kidney injury.
5. Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are known to be a triggering medication for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be withdrawn promptly to allow for renal function recovery.
It is important to be aware of these associations and to monitor patients for symptoms of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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