00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old male intravenous drug user presented to the emergency department with fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male intravenous drug user presented to the emergency department with fever, shortness of breath and headache. During examination, a pansystolic murmur was detected. His temperature was 39.5ºC and his heart rate was 130/min. Blood tests conducted in the emergency department showed elevated levels of WBC and CRP. He was admitted to the ward and started on empirical antibiotic treatment. However, on the second day of admission, he became anuric and a blood sample revealed abnormal levels of Na+, K+, urea, and creatinine. Which medication administered during this admission is most likely responsible for the patient's deterioration on day 2?

      Your Answer: Piperacillin with tazobactam

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The patient, who was an intravenous drug user, presented with symptoms of acute infective endocarditis and was likely given a combination of antibiotics and analgesics. However, on the second day of admission, he developed acute kidney injury, which was most likely caused by the nephrotoxic aminoglycoside antibiotic, gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav, morphine, and paracetamol are not common causes of acute kidney injury, although their doses may need to be adjusted in patients with renal impairment.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.

      It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea that has...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea that has been going on for four months. She has also lost around 8 kg during this time and currently has a BMI of 17.4 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia as a Cause of Secondary Amenorrhoea

      This young woman is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is the absence of menstrual periods for at least three months after previously having regular cycles. Her low BMI and weight loss suggest that anorexia is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea. Anorexia is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe calorie restriction and weight loss.

      In this case, the anorexia has likely caused a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is a condition where the pituitary gland fails to produce enough hormones to stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen. This hormonal imbalance can lead to a range of symptoms, including amenorrhoea, infertility, and osteoporosis.

      It is important to address the underlying cause of secondary amenorrhoea, as it can have long-term health consequences. Treatment for anorexia may involve a combination of therapy, nutritional counseling, and medication. Once the underlying cause is addressed, menstrual cycles may resume, but it may take several months for regular cycles to return.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
      Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications

      Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:

      IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.

      Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.

      Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.

      Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.

      Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.

      Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and lower colicky abdominal pain. He has experienced these symptoms for two years and during this time has lost over a stone in weight. Recently he has noticed a strange red rash on his shins. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of a fissure-in-ano three years ago.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Crohn’s Disease: Clinical Picture and Differential Diagnosis

      The clinical presentation of a patient with weight loss and a red rash on the shins suggests a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. This condition typically affects individuals between the ages of 15-30 and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.

      A history of fissure-in-ano further supports the possibility of Crohn’s disease, as this condition is commonly associated with perianal disease. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count and colonoscopy with biopsy are necessary. Crohn’s disease is transmural and can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the formation of skip lesions between inflamed and unaffected bowel.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include infective colitis, ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, and appendicitis. However, infective colitis typically has a shorter duration of symptoms, while ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and mucous discharge. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and a 2-year history effectively rules out appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old man is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with symptoms of coughing...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with symptoms of coughing and choking after meals, accompanied by yellow and brown sputum. He has a history of traumatic brain injury and required intubation for 2 months. On examination, mild crackles are heard in the right middle zone. His vital signs include a heart rate of 89/min, respiratory rate of 21/min, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 89%, and temperature of 37.0ºC. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-esophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Long-term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients can lead to the formation of a tracheo-esophageal fistula, which can cause symptoms such as productive cough, choking after feeds, and aspiration pneumonia. Other potential complications, such as pneumatocele, obstructive fibrinous tracheal pseudomembrane, and tracheomalacia, are less likely based on the patient’s clinical presentation.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that does not affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities. What is the most precise diagnostic test for this patient's probable condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-citrullinated protein antibody

      Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She and her...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She and her partner frequently travel abroad for charity work and are not planning to have children at the moment. The woman is undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease and desires a low-maintenance contraceptive method that does not require her to remember to take it. The GP has already emphasized the significance of barrier protection in preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections. What is the most suitable contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The most effective form of contraception for young women who desire a low-maintenance option and do not want to remember to take it daily is the implantable contraceptive. This option is particularly suitable for those with busy or unpredictable lifestyles, such as those planning to travel. While the intrauterine device is also effective for 5 years, it is contraindicated for those with active pelvic inflammatory disease. The implantable contraceptive, which lasts for 3 years, is a better option in this case. Injectable contraceptive is less suitable as it only lasts for 12 weeks.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.

      The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but does not want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family. What would be the most suitable contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)

      Correct Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity is a risk factor for venous thromboembolism in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). To minimize this risk, the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) recommends that women with a body mass index (BMI) of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced in patients weighing over 90kg.

      Fortunately, there are other contraceptive options available for obese patients. All other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe and effective for most women, regardless of their weight. However, it’s important to note that patients who have undergone gastric sleeve, bypass, or duodenal switch surgery cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to the lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with the COCP and consider alternative contraceptive options. It’s important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Passmed