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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after he fell off his bike and landed on his arm. Upon examination, his arm is swollen and causing him pain. There are no visible breaks in the skin and no neurovascular deficits were detected. X-rays were taken and the child was diagnosed with an unstable displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion.

      Correct Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia pin fixation and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in Children

      A supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a common injury in children, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture can cause pain, swelling, and resistance to arm examination. It is crucial to check and record the child’s neurovascular status, as a displaced fracture can compress or damage the brachial artery.

      One treatment option for an unstable displaced fracture is reduction under anaesthesia and the insertion of pins to stabilise the fracture. After this procedure, the arm should be maintained in flexion with a collar and cuff, which acts as a natural splint. The degree of flexion should be determined by the presence of the radial pulse, and the child should be carefully observed for 24 hours after the operation to monitor for compartment syndrome.

      While stabilisation is necessary after reduction, a below-elbow plaster is not appropriate for a supracondylar fracture. Instead, an above-elbow plaster or a collar and cuff is preferred. It is essential to choose the appropriate treatment option to minimise the risk of the fracture becoming displaced after reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      180.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred by her general practitioner. He has stated in his letter that the patient has vertebral tenderness at the level of the spine of her scapula, which you confirm by examination.
      What level is this vertebrae if the patient is in her 60s?

      Your Answer: T2

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Identifying Vertebral Levels: Landmarks and Importance in Clinical Scenarios

      Being able to identify the vertebral level is crucial in clinical scenarios, especially following trauma. It allows for effective communication with clinicians who may not be on site or at a distant tertiary center. To identify the level of the vertebral spine, certain landmarks can be used. The spine of the scapula is at T3, the most inferior aspect of the scapula is at T7, the most superior aspect of the iliac crest is at L4, and the posterior superior iliac spine is at S2. C7 is the level of the vertebra prominens, making it a useful landmark for orientation. The spine of the scapula is not found at T1, but it is found at T2. Knowing these landmarks and their corresponding vertebral levels is essential for effective communication and diagnosis in clinical scenarios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
      This sign is most likely to be caused by:

      Your Answer: Compression of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.

      It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

      While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      214.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.

      The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.

      Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.

      If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.

      After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
      What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:

      Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.

      Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.

      Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.

      Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.

      Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right arm while lifting a heavy bag of garden waste. The arm is visibly bruised, and upon flexing the elbow, a lump appears in the middle of the anterior aspect of the arm. The diagnosis is a rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii. Where does this tendon typically attach to a bony point?

      Your Answer: Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

      Explanation:

      The supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula is where the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii attaches within the shoulder joint capsule. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus is where the subscapularis muscle inserts, while the crest of the lesser tuberosity is where the latissimus dorsi and teres major muscles attach. The coracoid process of the scapula is where the short head of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis minor muscles attach. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is where the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles insert. Lastly, the long head of the triceps brachii attaches to the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula. These attachments and insertions are important for understanding the anatomy and function of the shoulder and arm muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.

      Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.

      Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.

      Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful and deformed wrist that looks like a dinner fork. A radiograph shows a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Her past medical history includes osteoporosis, type II diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Distal Radial Fracture in an Elderly Patient

      Distal radial fractures, commonly known as Colles’ fractures, are often seen in elderly patients with poor bone quality. There are several treatment options available for this type of fracture, but the choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the fracture.

      Closed Reduction and Below-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      This is the most common treatment option for distal radial fractures. The fracture can be reduced with closed manipulation following a haematoma block, and then immobilized with a below-elbow backslab (half cast).

      Skeletal Traction
      Skeletal traction is not practical for distal radial fractures as it can cause stiffness in the limb.

      Open Reduction and Internal Fixation
      While open reduction and internal fixation can provide the most anatomical reduction, it comes with risks that may outweigh the benefits, especially in elderly patients with poor bone quality and co-morbidities.

      Intramedullary Rod
      An intramedullary rod is rarely used for upper limb fractures.

      Closed Reduction and Above-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      Although an above-elbow backslab can stabilize the joint above and below the fracture, it is not recommended as it can cause stiffness and difficulty in regaining full use after removal.

      In conclusion, the treatment of distal radial fractures in elderly patients should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s overall health and the severity of the fracture. Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast) is the most common treatment option, while other options should be considered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left anatomical snuffbox. Specialized scaphoid views (X-rays) are taken, but no abnormality is detected. However, there is still clinical suspicion of a fracture. What should be the next most suitable step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat scaphoid views in 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Repeat Scaphoid Views in Suspected Fractures

      When a scaphoid fracture is suspected but not visible on initial X-rays, it is recommended to repeat the radiographs in 10-14 days. During this time, bone resorption around the fracture occurs, making the diagnosis easier. However, proceeding without treatment is not advised due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Requesting another lateral view or a bone scan would not be appropriate. Instead, a cast is usually applied after the acute injury and remains in place until the fracture is diagnosed. MRI wrist imaging after only 3 days is not necessary in this setting. Repeat scaphoid views are crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (4/7) 57%
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