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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days ago for a fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 120 kg. During her previous visit, her ECG showed that she had AF with a heart rate of 180 bpm. She was prescribed bisoprolol and advised to undergo a 48-hour ECG monitoring. Upon her return, it was discovered that she has non-paroxysmal AF.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start her on digoxin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure

      When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with a NOAC or warfarin is also necessary. Cardioversion with amiodarone should not be the first line of treatment due to the patient’s heart failure. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may not be the best option either. Amlodipine is not effective for rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Overall, the treatment plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and medical history.

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation and Heart Failure: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Mucopolysacchirodosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new drug, Rosinox, is being tested to improve pain control in patients...

    Correct

    • A new drug, Rosinox, is being tested to improve pain control in patients with connective tissue diseases. The company conducting the study wants to determine the appropriate dosage for the drug.

      They have found that if a patient takes 500 mg of the drug orally, only 250 mg reaches the systemic circulation.

      What is the term used to describe the percentage of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation?

      Your Answer: Bioavailability

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption is the process by which drugs enter the body and reach the circulation. Bioavailability is an important factor in absorption as it determines the proportion of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation. Bioavailability is calculated by dividing the dose reaching circulation by the total dose administered.

      Distribution refers to the spread of the drug throughout the body. Metabolism involves the body’s processes of changing the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion is the process of removing the drug from the body.

      pharmacokinetics and bioavailability is crucial in determining the appropriate dose of a drug for efficacy. By knowing the bioavailability of a drug, healthcare professionals can calculate the dose needed to achieve the desired effect. Overall, pharmacokinetics and bioavailability play a significant role in the safe and effective use of drugs in healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old active builder presents to the emergency department with left-sided scrotal pain...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old active builder presents to the emergency department with left-sided scrotal pain and swelling accompanied by fever for the past two days. He had a urinary tract infection 10 days ago, which improved after taking antibiotics. He has a medical history of benign prostatic hyperplasia and is waiting for transurethral resection of the prostate. Despite his age, he is still sexually active with his wife and denies ever having a sexually transmitted disease. What is the probable pathogen responsible for his current condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis is probable in individuals with a low risk of sexually transmitted infections, such as a married man in his 50s who only has one sexual partner, and is most likely caused by enteric organisms like E. coli due to the presence of pain, swelling, and a history of urinary tract infections.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography brain

      Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Carvedilol

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful red eye and blurred vision. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he is experiencing multiple painful ulcers in his mouth and genital area. Despite being sexually active, he admits to seldom using barrier contraception, and his routine sexually transmitted infection screenings have all been negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behcet's disease

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s disease is characterized by the presence of oral ulcers, genital ulcers, and anterior uveitis. A red and painful eye with blurred vision is a common symptom of anterior uveitis. When combined with painful oral and genital ulcers, it forms the triad that is indicative of Behcet’s disease. This condition is a type of multi-system vasculitis that typically affects men in their 20s and 30s more than women. Although sexual history should always be considered as a cause for genital ulcers, it is not relevant in this case. Chancroid, HSV, Reiter’s syndrome, and primary syphilis are not associated with the triad of symptoms seen in Behcet’s disease.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and tenderness in the cubital fossa. Upon examination, it is found that the patient's ability to flex his elbow is reduced and his ability to supinate his right forearm is significantly impaired. However, sensation in the skin of his right forearm remains intact. What structure is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Biceps brachii muscle

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Cause of Weakness in Elbow Flexion and Supination: Biceps Brachii Muscle Injury

      The biceps brachii muscle plays a crucial role in elbow flexion and supination of the forearm. When a patient presents with weakness in both of these movements, along without loss of skin sensation, a biceps brachii injury is the most likely cause. In contrast, damage to the brachialis muscle would only affect elbow flexion, while damage to the pronator teres muscle would only affect forearm pronation. The musculocutaneous nerve, which innervates the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, as well as the coracobrachialis muscle, would also result in sensory loss if damaged. The supinator muscle, on the other hand, only plays a role in supination and would not cause weakness in elbow flexion. Therefore, identifying the specific muscle involved is crucial in determining the cause of weakness in elbow flexion and supination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient on a medical ward received a transfusion 72 hours ago for...

    Correct

    • A patient on a medical ward received a transfusion 72 hours ago for symptomatic anaemia on a background of chronic renal disease and obstructive airways disease. He has a history of previous transfusions in the last six months. The patient, who is in his 60s, has now dropped his Hb by 20 g/L compared to his pretransfusion level and reports a dark coloured urine. The LDH and bilirubin are elevated. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Delayed Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

      A delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction can occur 24 hours after a transfusion in patients who have been previously immunised through transfusions or pregnancy. Initially, the antibodies are not detectable, but they become apparent as a secondary immune response to the antigen exposure during the transfusion. In such cases, it is essential to carry out a haemoglobin level, blood film, LDH, direct antiglobulin test, renal profile, serum bilirubin, haptoglobin, and urinalysis for haemoglobinuria. Additionally, the group and antibody screen should be repeated.

      It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing a transfusion-associated graft versus host disease or acute hepatitis as both would occur within a week or two. Furthermore, this is not an acute haemolysis that would be expected to occur during the transfusion. The rise in bilirubin and LDH levels indicates a haemolytic reaction. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s condition and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth to her first child. The patient has been complaining of feeling ‘down’ for the last 4 or 5 days. She also describes being tearful and tired. She denies loss of interest in her hobbies, difficulty concentrating, guilt, change in appetite, sluggishness and suicidal thoughts. She also denies hallucination.
      Which of the following statements concerning this patient’s likely condition is most accurate?

      Your Answer: The condition must last at least 2 weeks before a diagnosis can be made

      Correct Answer: Her condition will probably improve within 10–14 days following birth

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Postpartum mood disorders are a common occurrence among women after giving birth. There are three main types of postpartum mood disorders: postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis.

      Postpartum blues is the mildest form and affects at least 50% of women. Symptoms include fatigue, tearfulness, and a depressed mood that develops 2-3 days after giving birth. This condition usually resolves without treatment within 10-14 days following birth.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that affects about 10% of women. Patients present with at least 2 weeks of depressed mood that begins within 4 weeks of delivery. They also suffer from five of the following symptoms: change in sleep, loss of interest, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, sluggishness, and suicidal ideation. Treatment options include antidepressants and psychotherapy.

      Postpartum psychosis is the rarest form, with an incidence rate of about 0.1%. It is characterized by hallucinations and delusions, and patients may feel suicidal or homicidal, especially towards the newborn. This condition can last 1 month or more and often requires hospitalization with anti-psychotic treatment.

      It is important to note that there is no time limit on diagnosing these conditions. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of a postpartum mood disorder, seek medical attention immediately. With proper treatment, these conditions can be managed effectively, and the patient can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      43.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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