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Question 1
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.
Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.
In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old lady receives an invitation to attend for breast screening at her local hospital.
Which one of the following statements with regard to breast screening is most accurate?Your Answer: Two mammogram views are routinely taken
Explanation:Breast Cancer Screening in the UK: What You Need to Know
Breast cancer screening in the United Kingdom is a three-yearly service offered to women aged between 50-70, with options for those in an at-risk category. The screening involves taking two views of the breast by mammography, a specialised form of plain radiography used exclusively for breast imaging. Recall is on a yearly basis, and triple assessment is performed for any women found to have a breast lump, comprising imaging, clinical assessment, and histopathology. It is important to note that triple assessment is not used in screening, and inclusion criteria for screening currently does not focus on the status of menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which nerve (and corresponding nerve root) are you assessing when eliciting the triceps reflex during a neurological examination of the upper limb by striking the triceps tendon with a tendon hammer while the patient's arm is flexed at 90° across their chest?
Your Answer: Radial nerve C6
Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7
Explanation:The Radial Nerve and Triceps Muscle
The radial nerve is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle, which is the primary extensor of the forearm. This nerve is mainly derived from the C7 nerve root and provides motor supply to the upper limb extensor compartments. The triceps muscle gets its name from its three heads of origin, namely the long, lateral, and medial heads. It attaches to the olecranon of the ulna bone.
In summary, the radial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement of the upper limb extensor compartments, particularly the triceps muscle. Its origin from the C7 nerve root and its innervation of the triceps muscle make it an essential component of the upper limb motor system. The triceps muscle three heads of origin and attachment to the olecranon of the ulna bone further highlight its importance in the movement of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of dyspnoea on exertion. She denies a history of cough, wheeze and weight loss but admits to a brief episode of syncope two weeks ago. Her past medical history includes, chronic kidney disease stage IV and stage 2 hypertension. She is currently taking lisinopril, amlodipine and atorvastatin. She is an ex-smoker with a 15-pack year history.
On examination it is noted that she has a low-volume pulse and an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge. The murmur is noted to radiate to both carotids. Moreover, she has good bilateral air entry, vesicular breath sounds and no added breath sounds on auscultation of the respiratory fields. The patient’s temperature is recorded as 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/90 mmHg, and a pulse of 68 beats per minute. A chest X-ray is taken which is reported as the following:
Investigation Result
Chest radiograph Technically adequate film. Normal cardiothoracic ratio. Prominent right ascending aorta, normal descending aorta. No pleural disease. No bony abnormality.
Which of the following most likely explains her dyspnoea?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve does not open completely, resulting in dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. It produces a narrow pulse pressure, a low volume pulse, and an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. An enlarged right ascending aorta is a common finding in aortic stenosis. Calcification of the valve is diagnostic and can be observed using CT or fluoroscopy. Aortic stenosis is commonly caused by calcification of the aortic valve due to a congenitally bicuspid valve, connective tissue disease, or rheumatic heart disease. Echocardiography confirms the diagnosis, and valve replacement or intervention is indicated with critical stenosis <0.5 cm or when symptomatic. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a widened pulse pressure, collapsing pulse, and an early diastolic murmur heard loudest in the left lower sternal edge with the patient upright. Patients can be asymptomatic until heart failure manifests. Causes include calcification and previous rheumatic fever. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a congenital or acquired condition characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Acquired VSD is mainly a result of previous myocardial infarction. VSD can be asymptomatic or cause heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard best at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. A third heart sound may also be heard. Patients can remain asymptomatic until dilated cardiac failure occurs, upon which dyspnea and peripheral edema are among the most common symptoms. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. Auscultation of the precordium may also reveal an opening snap. Patients are at increased risk of atrial fibrillation due to left atrial enlargement. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is a previous history of rheumatic fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his facial appearance, which he believes has changed significantly over the past five years. He also reports that his shoes no longer fit properly, and that his hands seem larger. The GP suspects that he may be suffering from acromegaly, and the patient is referred to the Endocrinology Department for further evaluation and treatment.
Regarding acromegaly, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: All cases are the result of a secreting pituitary tumour
Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of colon cancer
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks
Acromegaly is a rare hormonal disorder that results from excess growth hormone (GH) in adulthood. This condition is typically caused by a pituitary tumour, which secretes GH and insulin growth factor 1 (IGF-1), leading to increased cellular growth and turnover. Unfortunately, this increased cellular activity also increases the risk of colon cancer.
While an enlarged upper jaw is often associated with acromegaly, it is actually the lower jaw that is more commonly affected, resulting in the classic underbite seen in these patients. Additionally, untreated acromegaly can lead to osteoarthritis, which is associated with excessive cartilage and connective tissue growth, but not autoimmune destruction of the joint.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as enlarged hands and feet, thickened skin, and deepening of the voice, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal range
pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis with partial respiratory compensation
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation
Explanation:Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach
Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.
Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.
Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).
Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with a 24-hour history of increasing restlessness, agitation, vomiting, diarrhoea and tremors. Upon examination, he displays hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia and myoclonus, with a particular emphasis on the lower limbs. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. He has recently begun taking St John's wort to alleviate his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.
Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.
Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.
Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.
gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.
Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.
Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 22-year-old female patient reports experiencing tingling sensations around her mouth and hands, as well as numbness in her feet. She has a history of anorexia nervosa and her current BMI is 15. Additionally, she has been experiencing occasional, unresolved contractions in her arms and legs. Tapping the inferior portions of her cheekbones causes facial spasms. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Tetany in Anorexia Nervosa Patients
Patients with anorexia nervosa are at risk of electrolyte abnormalities, which can lead to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy such as pins and needles. However, some patients may experience tetany, which is a sign of existing nerve excitability. Tetany results from a low level of calcium extracellularly, which increases the permeability of neuronal membranes to sodium ion, causing a progressive depolarization and increasing the possibility of action potentials. This is highlighted by Chvostek’s signs, which is a sign of tetany whereby tapping the inferior portions of the cheekbones produces facial spasms.
Hypocalcaemia is the most common cause of tetany, but low levels of magnesium can also cause it. In cases of hypocalcaemia with coexisting hypomagnesemia, magnesium should be corrected first. This is especially true in cases of hypocalcaemia refractory to treatment, whereby magnesium levels should be checked. Magnesium depletion decreases the release of PTH and causes skeletal resistance to PTH. Therefore, tetany in anorexia nervosa patients is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure proper treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for her varicose veins in the distribution of the long and short saphenous veins. She experienced difficulty walking after the surgery because she could not dorsiflex or evert her foot. The surgeon had warned her beforehand that nerve damage was a possibility.
What nerve was affected during the patient's varicose vein surgery?Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Understanding Foot Drop: Common Peroneal Nerve Damage
Foot drop, the inability to dorsiflex the foot, is often caused by damage to the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is commonly damaged during varicose vein surgery when the short saphenous vein is avulsed around the head and neck of the fibula. The nerve divides to innervate the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, and paralysis of these compartments causes foot drop. Patients compensate for the loss of dorsiflexion by adopting a high-stepping gait, resulting in a loud slap with each step. Other nerves, such as the sciatic, medial plantar, lateral plantar, and tibial nerves, may cause different symptoms and pain locations. Understanding the specific nerve damage is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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