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Question 1
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A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?
Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:
1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.
2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.
3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.
4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.
5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.
Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There is also stiffness in his fingers and he finds it difficult to use his computer. There is a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 10 mg, and type II diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He had been given a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis some years ago but has had no recent symptoms. On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 34; blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and he has swelling and bony deformity of both knees. There is crepitus and anterior knee pain on flexion. Examination of the hands reveals Heberden’s nodes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 120 g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Rheumatoid factor Negative
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
X-ray of both knees reveals reduced joint space, subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation and osteophytes within the joint space.
Which of the following fits best with the diagnosis?Your Answer: Enteropathic arthropathy
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The woman in the picture appears to have osteoarthritis, which is commonly seen in overweight individuals affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The changes in her hands also suggest osteoarthritis. Treatment options include weight reduction, pain relief medication like paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, or knee replacement surgery. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as her ESR and rheumatoid factor are normal. Seronegative arthritis is also unlikely as it is associated with raised inflammatory markers, which are not present in this case. Enteropathic arthropathy is unlikely as there are no recent symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. Osteoporosis is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause knee or finger pain, but rather presents following a fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
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A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy
When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
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A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in his right big toe. He reported experiencing severe pain that disturbed his sleep at night. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking thiazide diuretics. He consumes alcohol most nights of the week. During his last visit to the doctor, he was prescribed antibiotics for painful urination. Upon examination, the doctor observed tenderness, redness, and warmth in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint. The doctor decided to perform joint aspiration.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Common Joint Disorders and Infections
Gout, psoriatic arthritis, pseudogout, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis are all joint disorders and infections that can cause pain, swelling, and redness in affected joints. Gout is caused by crystal deposition in the joint, most commonly in the big toe, and can be triggered by certain medications, trauma, infection, surgery, and alcohol consumption. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with DIPJs being the most commonly affected joints. Pseudogout occurs due to the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals in the joint and usually affects knee joints in patients with previous joint damage. Septic arthritis is caused by joint infection, with gonococci being the most common organism in young patients and Staphylococcus aureus in older patients with pre-existing joint damage. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone caused by various organisms and presents with redness, swelling, pain, and tenderness over the affected bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.
During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.
Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.
The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
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A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents for review. Most recently, she has suffered from two severe respiratory tract infections (which have been treated with oral clarithromycin) and has had worsening left upper quadrant pain. She currently takes low-dose prednisolone for her rheumatoid. On examination, there are obvious signs of active rheumatoid disease. Additionally, you can feel the tip of her spleen when you ask her to roll onto her right-hand side.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 1.9 × 109/l (neutrophil 0.9) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 90 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor +++
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 52 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Felty’s syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Splenomegaly, Neutropenia, and Active Rheumatoid Disease
Felty’s Syndrome:
The patient’s symptoms of splenomegaly, neutropenia, and active rheumatoid disease suggest Felty’s syndrome. This condition is thought to occur due to the sequestration and destruction of granulocytes, potentially caused by reduced granulocyte growth factors and autoantibodies/immune complexes formed against them. Felty’s syndrome affects 1-3% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and has a higher prevalence in females. Treatment typically involves the use of methotrexate as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug, with splenectomy reserved as a last resort.Lymphoma:
While lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the absence of B-symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss, or pruritus makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.Myeloma:
Myeloma often presents with anaemia and bone pain, as well as hypercalcaemia. Serum and urine electrophoresis are important investigations for this condition.Sarcoidosis:
Sarcoidosis commonly presents with respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, cough, and shortness of breath, as well as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy on examination. While the patient has a history of lower respiratory tract infections, her response to clarithromycin suggests an infective cause rather than sarcoidosis.Tuberculosis:
The patient does not have any clinical features or risk factors for tuberculosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
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An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
Full blood counts showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Felty syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes
Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.
Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
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A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders
The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.
Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.
In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
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A 20-year-old student midwife presents with increasing pain and swelling of the ring finger of her left hand. The pain and swelling started two days ago and is now extremely uncomfortable to the point the patient has been avoiding using the left hand altogether. She cannot remember injuring the affected area, and is usually fit and well, without medical conditions to note except an allergy to peanuts.
On examination, the affected finger is markedly swollen and erythematosus, with tenderness to touch – especially along the flexor aspect of the finger. The patient is holding the finger in slight flexion; attempts at straightening the finger passively causes the patient extreme pain. The patient is diagnosed with tenosynovitis.
About which one of the following conditions should the presence of acute migratory tenosynovitis in young adults, particularly women aged 20, alert the doctor?Your Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:Migratory tenosynovitis can be caused by disseminated gonococcal infection in younger adults, particularly women. It is important to test for C6-C9 complement deficiency. Rheumatoid arthritis can also cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory and is usually found in the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. Scleroderma can cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory either. Fluoroquinolone toxicity may increase the risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture, but it does not cause migratory tenosynovitis. Reactive arthritis can cause tendinitis, but it is more prevalent in men and is not migratory. It is a rheumatoid factor-seronegative arthritis that can be linked with HLA-B27.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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