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Question 1
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ºC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.
During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.
When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.
Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).
What is the most likely complication?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:Chickenpox and its Complications
Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.
Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
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A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?Your Answer: Human herpesvirus 8
Explanation:The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.
CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A 30-year-old woman with asthma presented with rapidly developing asthma and wheezing. She was admitted, and during her treatment, she coughed out tubular gelatinous materials. A chest X-ray showed collapse of the lingular lobe.
What is this clinical spectrum better known as?Your Answer: Plastic bronchitis
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions: Plastic Bronchitis, Loeffler Syndrome, Lofgren Syndrome, Cardiac Asthma, and Croup
Plastic Bronchitis: Gelatinous or rigid casts form in the airways, leading to coughing. It is associated with asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, and respiratory infections. Treatment involves bronchial washing, sputum induction, and preventing infections. Bronchoscopy may be necessary for therapeutic removal of the casts.
Loeffler Syndrome: Accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to parasitic larvae passage. Charcot-Leyden crystals may be present in the sputum.
Lofgren Syndrome: Acute presentation of sarcoidosis with hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum. Usually self-resolving.
Cardiac Asthma: Old term for acute pulmonary edema, causing peribronchial fluid collection and wheezing. Pink frothy sputum is produced.
Croup: Acute pharyngeal infection in children aged 6 months to 3 years, presenting with stridor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
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A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after he saw him convulsing on the floor of the bathroom. On arrival, he is found unresponsive to sternal rub. His vitals are:
Temperature: 37.5°C
Pulse: 120/min
Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 14/min
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
Physical examination reveals hot and dry skin. The patient’s pupils are dilated and minimally responsive to light. ECG shows a QRS duration of 130ms. His past medical history is significant for depression, alcohol dependence, marijuana use, and occasional IV drug use.
What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation:Sodium bicarbonate is the appropriate treatment for tricyclic antidepressant overdose, as it widens QRS and causes arrhythmia. Thiamine is used to treat Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in alcoholics. Flumazenil reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, while naloxone treats opioid intoxication.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
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A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 08:30, and it is currently 10:00. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed
Explanation:progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill
The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:
– If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
– If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the last 6 months. His past medical history includes hypertension, gout and a previous myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His current medications are as follows:
diltiazem 60 mg orally (po) twice daily (bd)
spironolactone 100 mg po once daily (od)
allopurinol 100 mg po od
paracetamol 1 g po four times daily (qds) as required (prn)
lisinopril 20 mg po od.
Given this man’s likely diagnosis, which of the above medications should be stopped?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Uses and Contraindications
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can treat angina and hypertension, but it should be stopped in patients with chronic heart disease and heart failure due to its negative inotropic effects.
Spironolactone can alleviate leg swelling and is one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, along with ACE inhibitors and β-blockers.
Allopurinol is safe to use in heart failure patients as it is used for the prevention of gout and has no detrimental effect on the heart.
Paracetamol does not affect the heart and is safe to use in heart failure patients.
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and angina, and stopping it can worsen heart failure. It is also one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure. The mechanism by which ACE inhibitors reduce mortality is not fully understood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
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A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
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A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage
Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.
Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B cells to quickly control ANCA associated vasculitides while sparing other lymphocytes?
Your Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis
ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. There are several treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity of the disease. Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are induction agents used in severe or very active disease. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that causes profound B cell depletion.
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are maintenance agents used for their steroid sparing effect. They can also be used to induce remission in mild disease, but their maximal effect takes three to four weeks. Therefore, they are not appropriate for severe or very active disease. Ciclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that blocks IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells. However, it is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the disease and the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of pain while swallowing and frequent nausea that has been going on for 4 weeks. Due to his age and symptoms, the doctor refers him for an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD), which reveals oesophageal ulceration. What medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronic acid
Explanation:Alendronic acid is a bisphosphonate that can cause various oesophageal problems, including oesophagitis and ulceration. It is commonly used to treat and prevent osteoporosis. Other side effects of bisphosphonates include fever, myalgia, arthralgia, and hypocalcaemia. In this case, the patient has developed oesophageal ulceration, which is a common side effect of alendronic acid. Treatment may involve high-dose PPI and discontinuation of the medication.
Amlodipine is not the correct answer. It is a calcium channel blocker used to treat angina and hypertension. While it can cause dyspepsia, it does not typically cause gastrointestinal ulceration. Some studies have even suggested that amlodipine may have a protective effect. Common side effects of amlodipine include constipation, lower limb oedema, and headache.
Aspirin is also not the correct answer. While aspirin and other NSAIDs are associated with peptic ulcer disease, there is no evidence to suggest that they cause oesophageal ulcers.
Ibuprofen is also not the correct answer. It is a commonly used NSAID that can cause gastric irritation and peptic ulcers with prolonged use. However, oesophageal ulcers are rare and are more likely to be caused by alendronic acid.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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