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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old patient complains of dysphagia that has persisted for four weeks. The...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old patient complains of dysphagia that has persisted for four weeks. The GP deems it necessary to urgently refer the patient for an endoscopy within two weeks. During the endoscopy, a suspicious lesion is observed in the middle third of the oesophagus. A biopsy of the lesion is taken and sent to the pathology for further examination.

      What are some potential characteristics of a cancerous cell that may be observed under a microscope?

      Your Answer: Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Malignant Cells

      Malignant cells possess distinct features that differentiate them from normal cells. These characteristics include an increased nuclear size, which results in an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio. Additionally, malignant cells exhibit nuclear and cellular pleomorphism, which means that they lack cell differentiation. Another feature of malignant cells is an increased nuclear DNA content, which causes dark staining on H and E slides, also known as hyperchromatism. Prominent nucleoli or irregular chromatin distribution and the presence of mitotic figures are also common in malignant cells.

      On the other hand, normal cells do not exhibit these features. They have a balanced nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, and their nuclei are uniform in size and shape. Normal cells also have a well-defined cytoplasm and exhibit cell differentiation. These characteristics are essential for the proper functioning of normal cells and maintaining the overall health of the body.

      In summary, the characteristics of malignant cells are distinct from those of normal cells. these features is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
      What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?

      Your Answer: CA19-9

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers: An Overview

      Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:

      CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.

      AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.

      CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.

      CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.

      CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation on the outside of her left thigh. The pain is particularly bothersome when she moves, especially when she's standing at work. She reports no prior experience with this type of pain and has no significant medical history. Her records show a recent blood pressure reading of 130/90 mmHg and a BMI of 40 kg/m². What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: L3 lumbar radiculopathy

      Correct Answer: Meralgia parasthetica

      Explanation:

      Pain in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is a common symptom of Meralgia parasthetica. This pain is often worsened by standing and relieved by sitting, and is accompanied by altered sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Meralgia parasthetica can be caused by pregnancy, obesity, tense ascites, trauma, or surgery, and is more prevalent in individuals with diabetes.

      In contrast, fibromyalgia typically presents with pain in the neck and shoulders, along with other symptoms such as fatigue, muscle stiffness, difficulty sleeping, and cognitive impairment. Fibromyalgia pain does not typically affect the lateral thigh.

      L3 lumbar radiculopathy, on the other hand, causes pain in the lower back and hip that radiates down into the leg, often accompanied by muscle weakness.

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint pain and stiffness in the hips or knees, and is more common in older individuals, females, and those who are overweight. It does not typically cause changes in sensation in the thigh.

      Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.

      The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.

      Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.

      Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Before undergoing general anaesthesia, which regular medications need to be stopped? ...

    Incorrect

    • Before undergoing general anaesthesia, which regular medications need to be stopped?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Perioperative Period

      Phenelzine and tranylcypromine are monoamine oxidase inhibitors that need to be discontinued at least two weeks before elective surgery due to their potential life-threatening interactions with pethidine and indirect sympathomimetics. Additionally, they can prolong the action of suxamethonium by decreasing the concentration of plasma cholinesterase. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, should be continued throughout the perioperative period. Gliclazide, a short-acting oral hypoglycemic, can be taken if the surgery’s anticipated duration is short.

      Lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), and digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, should be continued pre-operatively. Morphine sulfate tablets should also be continued pre-operatively, and a morphine infusion (PCA) should be considered for postoperative analgesia. Pyridostigmine is used in the management of myasthenia gravis and should be continued before minor surgery. However, if perioperative muscle relaxation is required, omitting one or more doses of pyridostigmine would allow a reduction in the dose of the muscle relaxant. Proper medication management in the perioperative period is crucial to ensure patient safety and optimal surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent flu-like symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent flu-like symptoms. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing fever, nausea, vomiting, muscle aches, weakness, and an itchy sensation for the past two weeks. He also mentions having red urine on a few occasions. The patient denies having any respiratory symptoms such as cough or haemoptysis. During the examination, the GP observes slight scleral icterus and small palpable purpura on the patient's lower legs and arms. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      The presence of systemic vasculitic symptoms, along with signs of hepatitis B and the absence of pulmonary symptoms, indicates that the patient may have polyarteritis nodosa. The patient’s symptoms appear to be viral, except for the presence of itchiness, scleral jaundice, haematuria, and purpura, which suggest vasculitis. The absence of respiratory symptoms helps to eliminate other possible diagnoses, such as polymyalgia rheumatica. The patient’s scleral jaundice and itchiness may indicate obstructive hepatic impairment. Polyarteritis nodosa is strongly associated with hepatitis B infection and does not typically present with respiratory symptoms, unlike other types of vasculitis.

      Polyarteritis Nodosa: Symptoms, Features, and Diagnosis

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium-sized arteries, causing inflammation and aneurysm formation. It is more common in middle-aged men and is often associated with hepatitis B infection. Symptoms of PAN include fever, malaise, weight loss, hypertension, and joint pain. It can also cause nerve damage, testicular pain, and a skin condition called livedo reticularis. In some cases, patients may experience kidney damage and renal failure. Diagnosis of PAN may involve testing for perinuclear-antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) and hepatitis B serology. Angiograms may also be used to detect changes in the affected arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is admitted with a swollen left calf. Investigations confirm a deep vein thrombosis and he is started on treatment dose dalteparin. As he has a significant degree of renal impairment it is decided to monitor his response to dalteparin. What is the most suitable blood test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III levels

      Correct Answer: Anti-Factor Xa levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are summoned to the delivery room for the forceps delivery of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the delivery room for the forceps delivery of a baby of 37 week gestation who experienced fetal distress during labour. The attending obstetrician passes the baby to you for resuscitation. What is the initial step?

      Your Answer: Assess tone, breathing and heart rate

      Correct Answer: Dry the baby

      Explanation:

      Can you rephrase the algorithm for newborn resuscitation recommended by the UK resuscitation council?

      After birth, the first step is to dry the baby, maintain their temperature, and start timing. Next, assess the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, open their airway and give five inflation breaths. Then, reassess the heart rate. If there is no increase, check the chest movement to ensure the inflation breaths are adequate. If the chest is not moving, recheck the head position, consider two-person airway control, and repeat the inflation breaths. If the chest is moving but the heart rate is still undetectable or less than 60 beats per minute, start chest compressions at a ratio of 3 compressions to 1 inflation breath (3:1). Reassess the heart rate every 30 seconds, and if it is still undetectable or very slow, consider IV access and drugs.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having recently quit smoking, and having no complaints. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. However, microscopic haematuria is detected in her urine, and the following results are obtained. The patient did not experience any pain, dysuria, or engage in physical activity before the sample collection.

      Hb 150 g/L
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Reassure and re-check in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      If a patient is over 60 years old and has unexplained non-visible haematuria along with dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, they should be referred to a urologist using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. It is important to exclude bladder cancer as a potential cause, especially if the patient has a history of smoking. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, a CT scan of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it is used to detect radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. If resources are limited, the GP should initiate relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. In lower risk cases, reassurance and re-checking in 2-6 weeks may be considered.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of depression and non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of depression and non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is brought to the emergency department by her daughter after being found unconscious with an empty bottle of medication. She is disoriented and complains of feeling nauseous. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, she experiences visual hallucinations and yellowing of her vision.

      The patient denies smoking or substance abuse and leads a sedentary lifestyle. On examination, her pulse is irregular with a rate of 70 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. An ECG shows frequent premature ventricular contractions and ventricular bigeminy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and what management should be implemented for this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer an initial dose of naloxone intravenously

      Correct Answer: Administer digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments (Digibind) intravenously

      Explanation:

      In cases of non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with a sedentary lifestyle, digoxin monotherapy is recommended as the first line treatment according to NICE guidelines from 2014. However, if a patient experiences severe digoxin toxicity due to an overdose with suicidal intention, Digibind, which contains digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments, is the recognized antidote. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal issues, visual disturbances, cardiovascular problems, and central nervous system complications. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for paracetamol overdose, while naloxone and diazepam are used for opioid overdose and alcohol withdrawal, respectively. Cardioversion should be avoided if possible due to the risk of asystole, and if necessary, the lowest energy possible should be used.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Histology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed