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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?
Your Answer: May be treated with co-trimoxazole (Septrin)
Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis complains of abdominal pain. She denies any accompanying nausea or vomiting. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Explanation:Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with a higher incidence in adults. The condition is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. Diagnosis is made through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.
Treatment for mild and moderate episodes involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used to loosen and soften the plugs, while severe episodes may require gastrografin or Klean-Prep. If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction, surgical review should be obtained. Surgeons will often treat initially with intravenous fluids and a NG tube while keeping the patient nil by mouth. N-acetylcysteine can be put down the NG tube.
Overall, distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a serious complication in cystic fibrosis patients that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. With proper management, patients can avoid severe complications and maintain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man has been admitted to a General Surgical Ward, following an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for acute cholangitis. The procedure took place approximately two hours ago and went well, without complications. The patient is now complaining of central abdominal pain, radiating to the back.
His observations are normal. Examination is significant for central abdominal pain. His blood tests are significant for an amylase level of 814 u/l. His pre-ERCP amylase level was 89 u/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Complications of ERCP: Post-ERCP Pancreatitis, Papillary Stenosis, Anaphylaxis, Duodenal Pneumostasis, and Oesophageal Perforation
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to examine the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. However, like any medical procedure, ERCP is not without risks. Here are some of the possible complications of ERCP:
Post-ERCP Pancreatitis: This is a common complication of ERCP, with an incidence of approximately 2-3%. It is characterized by abdominal pain that radiates to the back and a significant elevation in amylase levels. Treatment involves analgesia, hydration, and bowel rest.
Papillary Stenosis: This is a late complication of ERCP that occurs in approximately 2-4% of patients. It is treated with endoscopic management, such as stenting or balloon dilation.
Anaphylaxis: Although rare, anaphylactic reactions to contrast agents used during ERCP can occur. Symptoms include respiratory compromise and hypotension, and treatment involves adrenaline and airway support.
Duodenal Pneumostasis: This complication refers to a collection of air in the duodenal wall and is typically recognized during the procedure. The procedure should be stopped to avoid bowel perforation.
Oesophageal Perforation: This is a rare complication of ERCP that typically presents with chest pain, mediastinitis, and cardiovascular instability.
In conclusion, while ERCP is a useful diagnostic and therapeutic tool, it is important to be aware of the potential complications and to take appropriate measures to prevent and manage them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself and reports no symptoms.
On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2 and there are some thickened folds of skin in his axilla and the nape of his neck. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. He is a non-smoker and does not drink.
A set of blood work is ordered. He demonstrated impaired fasting glucose in addition to the results below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
Cholesterol 5.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglyceride 3.9 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 30 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the next best investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound liver
Explanation:Choosing the Best Investigation: A Case Study
In this case study, a patient presents with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), raised ALT, impaired glucose regulation, acanthosis nigricans, and a high BMI. The question is, what investigation should be done next?
Ultrasound liver is the best investigation in this case. It is quick, inexpensive, and can provide enough information to guide management at initial stages. Weight management and dietary modification can help abate symptoms.
Screening for hereditary haemochromatosis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient does not complain of arthritis, diabetes, or changes to the skin.
Haematinics are not necessary, as the Hb is normal.
A CT scan of the abdomen would be useful, but it is costly and would result in the patient receiving radiation. It should not be the next best investigation.
Serum ceruloplasmin is not necessary, as there is nothing in the history to suggest Wilson’s disease.
In conclusion, choosing the best investigation requires careful consideration of the patient’s history and symptoms. In this case, ultrasound liver is the most appropriate next step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray
Explanation:The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.
Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.
In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.
Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset abdominal pain. The pain is severe, and has now localised to the right iliac fossa. She has a temperature of 37.6°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Other observations are normal. The surgical registrar comes to review this patient. During her examination she flexes and internally rotates her right hip, which causes her pain. She states that this girl’s appendix lies close to the obturator internus muscle.
What is the name of the clinical sign the registrar elicited?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cope’s sign
Explanation:Abdominal Signs and Their Meanings
Abdominal signs are physical findings that can help diagnose certain conditions. Here are some common abdominal signs and their meanings:
Cope’s Sign (Obturator Sign)
This sign indicates appendicitis and is elicited by flexing and internally rotating the hip. It suggests that the inflamed appendix is close to the obturator internus muscle.Murphy’s Sign
This sign is a test for gallbladder disease. It involves palpating the right upper quadrant of the abdomen while the patient takes a deep breath. If there is pain during inspiration, it suggests inflammation of the gallbladder.Pemberton’s Sign
This sign is seen in patients with superior vena cava obstruction. When the patient raises their hands above their head, it increases pressure over the thoracic inlet and causes venous congestion in the face and neck.Psoas Sign
This sign is a test for appendicitis. It involves extending the patient’s leg while they lie on their side. If this reproduces their pain, it suggests inflammation of the psoas muscle, which lies at the border of the peritoneal cavity.Rovsing’s Sign
This sign is another test for appendicitis. It involves palpating the left iliac fossa, which can reproduce pain in the right iliac fossa. This occurs because the nerves in the intestine do not localize well to an exact spot on the abdominal wall.In summary, abdominal signs can provide valuable information in the diagnosis of certain conditions. It is important to understand their meanings and how to elicit them properly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is referred to hospital for severe recurrent chest pain related to mealtimes. She had experienced these episodes over the past 3 years, particularly when food became stuck in her chest. The chest pain was not associated with physical activity or exertion. Additionally, she reported occasional nocturnal coughs and regurgitation. A chest X-ray taken during one of the chest pain episodes revealed a widened mediastinum. She did not have any other gastrointestinal issues or abdominal pain. Despite being prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), she did not experience any relief. What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Achalasia: Oesophageal Manometry Study and Other Modalities
Achalasia is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that causes progressive dysphagia for liquids and solids, accompanied by severe chest pain. While it is usually idiopathic, it can also be secondary to Chagas’ disease or oesophageal cancer. The diagnosis of achalasia is confirmed through oesophageal manometry, which reveals an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Other diagnostic modalities include a barium swallow study, which may show a classic bird’s beak appearance, but is not confirmatory. A CT scan of the thorax may show a dilated oesophagus with food debris, but is also not enough for diagnosis. Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is needed to rule out mechanical obstruction or pseudo-achalasia.
Treatment for achalasia is mainly surgical, but botulinum toxin injection or pharmacotherapy may be tried in those unwilling to undergo surgery. Drugs used include calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil. Oesophageal pH monitoring is useful in suspected gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), but is not diagnostic for achalasia.
In summary, oesophageal manometry is the best confirmatory test for suspected cases of achalasia, and other diagnostic modalities are used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include surgery, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old Chinese man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen belly. He reports experiencing weight loss and a dull ache in his right upper abdomen. Upon examination, he appears sweaty and has a tender enlarged liver with fluid buildup. His temperature is 38 °C and blood tests indicate elevated levels of α-fetoprotein. An ultrasound of his liver reveals areas of abnormal tissue growth. What is the probable primary liver cancer diagnosis based on these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Explanation:Liver Tumours: Types, Risk Factors, and Diagnostic Methods
Liver tumours are abnormal growths that develop in the liver. The most common primary liver tumour is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is often associated with hepatitis B infection, cirrhosis, male gender, and increasing age. Chronic hepatitis B is the major risk factor worldwide, while hepatitis C is the major risk factor in Europe. Patients with underlying cirrhosis may present with decompensation of liver disease, such as ascites, jaundice, worsening liver function tests, and variceal haemorrhage. Examination may reveal hepatomegaly or a right hypochondrial mass. Vascularity of the tumour may result in an audible bruit on auscultation.
Diagnostic methods for liver tumours include increased α-fetoprotein, which is produced by 60% of HCCs. Ultrasound scanning will reveal focal lesions and may also show involvement of the portal vein. Helical triple-phase computed tomography (CT) scanning will identify HCC due to its hypervascular nature. Alternatively, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be used.
Other types of liver tumours include fibrosarcoma, which is an extremely rare primary tumour of the liver, cholangiocarcinoma, which are usually adenocarcinomas and are the second most common primary tumour of the hepatobiliary system, affecting biliary ducts, hepatoblastoma, which is a liver tumour that typically presents in childhood, in the first 3 years of life, and leiomyosarcoma, which is another rare primary tumour of the liver. Leiomyosarcoma is thought to affect women more than men and typically seems to present later in life, in the fifth and sixth decades of life. However, greater understanding of the epidemiology of these rare tumours is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations
Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives at the Emergency Department with intense abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, caput medusae is observed. Which vessels combine to form the obstructed blood vessel in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric and splenic veins
Explanation:Understanding the Hepatic Portal Vein and Caput Medusae
The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. When this vein is obstructed, it can lead to caput medusae, a clinical sign characterized by dilated varicose veins that emanate from the umbilicus, resembling Medusa’s head. This condition is often seen in patients with cirrhotic livers, particularly those who are alcoholics.
While the inferior mesenteric vein can sometimes contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein, this is only true for about one-third of individuals. The left gastric vein, on the other hand, does not play a role in the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
It’s important to note that the right and left common iliac arteries are not involved in this condition. Additionally, neither the inferior mesenteric artery nor the paraumbilical veins contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and physiology of the hepatic portal vein and caput medusae can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing ‘indigestion’ for the past six months. She has been using over-the-counter treatments without relief. She reports a burning-type sensation in her epigastric region which is present most of the time. Over the past four months, she has lost approximately 4 kg in weight. She denies dysphagia, melaena, nausea, or vomiting.
Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses.
What is the next step in managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently as a suspected gastro-oesophageal cancer to be seen in two weeks
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Suspected Gastro-Oesophageal Malignancy
Suspected gastro-oesophageal malignancy requires urgent referral, according to NICE guidelines. A patient’s age, weight loss, and dyspepsia symptoms meet the criteria for referral. An ultrasound of the abdomen may be useful to rule out biliary disease, but it would not be helpful in assessing oesophageal or stomach pathology. Treatment with proton pump inhibitors may mask malignancy signs and delay diagnosis. Helicobacter testing can be useful for dyspepsia patients, but red flag symptoms require urgent malignancy ruling out. A barium swallow is not a gold-standard test for gastro-oesophageal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain over the past two weeks. She describes a deep pain in the central part of her abdomen that tends to improve after eating and worsens approximately two hours after the meal. The pain does not radiate. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate and anti-inflammatory medications. She is also a heavy smoker. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastric region without guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are present. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Epigastric Pain: Peptic Ulcer Disease, Appendicitis, Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, and Pancreatitis
Epigastric pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s risk factors for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use and heavy smoking make peptic ulcer disease (PUD) in the duodenum the most likely diagnosis. Other potential causes of epigastric pain include appendicitis, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, diverticulitis, and pancreatitis. However, the patient’s symptoms and clinical signs do not align with these conditions. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest radiograph
Explanation:Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph
Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with a yellowish tinge to his skin and eyes and a tremor in his right hand. He mentions that his family has noticed a change in his speech and have been teasing him about sounding drunk. Upon examination, the doctor notes the presence of hepatomegaly, Kayser-Fleischer rings, and the tremor. What is the probable reason for the man's jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common Liver Disorders and Their Characteristics
Wilson’s Disease: A rare genetic disorder that results in copper deposition in various organs, including the liver, cornea, and basal ganglia of the brain. It typically presents in children with hepatic problems and young adults with neurological symptoms such as dysarthria, tremor, involuntary movements, and eventual dementia. Kayser-Fleischer rings may be present.
Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency: A genetic disorder that results in severe deficiency of A1AT, a protein that inhibits enzymes from inflammatory cells. This can lead to cirrhosis, but is typically associated with respiratory pathology and does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings.
Haemochromatosis: A genetic disorder that results in iron overload and is typically described as bronze diabetes due to the bronzing of the skin and the common occurrence of diabetes mellitus in up to 80% of patients.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: An autoimmune condition that typically presents in middle-aged females with itching, jaundice, and Sjögren’s syndrome.
Autoimmune Hepatitis: An autoimmune disorder that often affects young and middle-aged women and is associated with other autoimmune disorders. Around 80% of patients respond well to steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody diarrhoea and central abdominal pain. She also gives a history of unintentional weight loss. The patient is not yet menstruating. On examination, she has slight conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a macrocytic anaemia.
What is the likeliest diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is a condition where the lining of the small intestine is abnormal and improves when gluten is removed from the diet. It is caused by an immune response to a component of gluten called α-gliadin peptide. Symptoms can occur at any age but are most common in infancy and in adults in their 40s. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, delayed puberty, and anemia. Blood tests are used to diagnose the disease, and a biopsy of the small intestine can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves avoiding gluten in the diet. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis have different symptoms, while irritable bowel syndrome and carcinoid syndrome are unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease
Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police when she was found disoriented in the street. The Emergency Department recognises her as she has been brought in numerous times before. She appears malnourished and smells of alcohol. On examination, she is confused and ataxic. On eye examination, she has normal pupillary responses and a horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze.
Which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is likely responsible for the patient’s condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamins in Alcoholism: A Brief Overview
Alcoholism can lead to various vitamin deficiencies, which can cause serious health problems. Thiamine deficiency, also known as vitamin B1 deficiency, is common in alcoholics and can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment with intravenous or intramuscular thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis. Prophylactic treatment with vitamin replacement regimes is important to prevent the development of these conditions. Vitamin A deficiency can cause photophobia, dry skin, and growth retardation, but it is not associated with alcohol abuse. Pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration, megaloblastic anemia, and is commonly seen in patients with pernicious anemia, malabsorption, and gastrectomy. Vitamin K deficiency may present in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, but it will not cause the neurological findings observed in thiamine deficiency. Overall, it is important for alcohol-dependent patients to receive proper vitamin supplementation to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She experiences severe retrosternal chest pain during these episodes and has more difficulty swallowing liquids than solids.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal dysmotility
Explanation:Causes of Dysphagia: Understanding the Underlying Disorders
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various underlying disorders. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia for solids more than liquids, while neuromuscular conditions result in abnormal peristalsis of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia for liquids more than solids. However, oesophageal dysmotility is the only condition that can cause more dysphagia for liquids than solids due to uncoordinated peristalsis.
Achalasia is a likely underlying disorder for oesophageal dysmotility, which causes progressive dysphagia for liquids more than solids with severe episodes of chest pain. It is an idiopathic condition that can be diagnosed through a barium swallow and manometry, which reveal an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Oesophageal cancer and strictures typically cause dysphagia for solids before liquids, accompanied by weight loss, loss of appetite, rapidly progressive symptoms, or a hoarse voice. Pharyngeal pouch causes dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, and halitosis, and patients may need to manually reduce it through pressure on their neck to remove food contents from it.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause retrosternal chest pain, acid brash, coughing/choking episodes, and dysphagia, typically where there is a sensation of food getting stuck (but not for liquids). Benign oesophageal stricture is often associated with long-standing GORD, previous surgery to the oesophagus, or radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal involvement
Explanation:Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.
Rectal Involvement
UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.Transmural Inflammation
Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.Duodenal Involvement
UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.Symptoms and Severity
Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old professional who is working long hours develops intermittent periods of abdominal pain and bloating. She also notices a change in bowel habit and finds that going to the restroom helps to relieve her abdominal pain.
Which of the following drug treatments may help in the treatment of her colic and bloating symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional bowel disorder that affects mostly young adults, with women being more commonly affected than men. The diagnosis of IBS can be established using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort for at least one day per week in the last three months, along with two or more of the following: improvement with defecation, onset associated with a change in frequency of stool, or onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of the stool.
There are several treatment options available for IBS, depending on the predominant symptoms. Mebeverine, an antispasmodic, can be used to relieve colicky abdominal pain. Loperamide can be useful for patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D), while osmotic laxatives such as macrogols are preferred for constipation-predominant IBS (IBS-C). Cimetidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, can help with acid reflux symptoms, but is unlikely to help with colic or bloating. Metoclopramide, a D2 dopamine receptor antagonist, is used as an antiemetic and prokinetic, but is not effective for colic and bloating symptoms.
In summary, treatment options for IBS depend on the predominant symptoms and can include antispasmodics, laxatives, and acid reflux medications. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She reports that her stools float and are difficult to flush away. Blood tests reveal low potassium levels, low corrected calcium levels, low albumin levels, low haemoglobin levels, and a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The doctor suspects coeliac disease. What is the recommended first test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Coeliac Disease: Diagnosis and Investigations
Coeliac disease is a common cause of chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea, especially in young adults. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check IgA levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice is a lifelong gluten-free diet, which involves avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation, it is not the initial investigation of choice. Faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, but it is not diagnostic for coeliac disease. Associated abnormalities include hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypoalbuminaemia, and anaemia with iron, B12, and folate deficiency.
In conclusion, coeliac disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis of chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a lifelong gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:Management of Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.
Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.
In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of epigastric pain, vomiting and weight loss. The surgeon suspects gastric cancer and sends her for endoscopy. Where is the cancer likely to be located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Location of Gastric Cancers: Changing Trends
Gastric cancers can arise from different parts of the stomach, including the cardia, body, fundus, antrum, and pylorus. In the past, the majority of gastric cancers used to originate from the antrum and pylorus. However, in recent years, there has been a shift in the location of gastric cancers, with the majority now arising from the cardia. This change in trend highlights the importance of ongoing research and surveillance in the field of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An unknown middle-aged man was brought to the Emergency Department. He was found wandering aimlessly in the street and his gait was unsteady, suggestive of alcoholism. However, he did not smell of alcohol. He could not answer questions as to his whereabouts and there seemed to be decreased comprehension. He had cheilosis and glossitis. As he was asked to walk along a line to check for tandem gait, he bumped into a stool and it became evident that he could not see clearly. After admission, the next day, the ward nurse reported that the patient had passed stool five times last night and the other patients were complaining of the very foul smell. His blood tests reveal:
Calcium 1.90 (2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Albumin 40 (35–55 g/l)
PO43− 0.40 (0.70–1.40 mmol/l)
Which of the following treatments is given in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Megadose vitamin E
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of abetalipoproteinaemia, a rare genetic disorder that results in defective lipoprotein synthesis and fat malabsorption. This leads to deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin E, which is responsible for the neurological symptoms and visual problems. Vitamin A deficiency may also contribute to visual problems, while vitamin D deficiency can cause low calcium and phosphate levels and metabolic bone disease. Fomepizole is used to treat methanol poisoning, which presents with neurological symptoms and metabolic acidosis. However, this does not explain the patient’s cheilosis or glossitis. IV thiamine is used to treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a result of vitamin B deficiency commonly seen in malnourished patients with a history of alcohol abuse. Pancreatic enzyme supplements are used in chronic pancreatitis with exocrine insufficiency, while oral zinc therapy is used in Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive condition that causes excessive copper accumulation and can present with extrapyramidal features or neuropsychiatric manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluten-free diet
Explanation:Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small intestinal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison
Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.
Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.
Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.
Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.
Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.
Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.
In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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