00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
      Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis

      Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman with metastatic carcinoma of the breast is admitted to your...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with metastatic carcinoma of the breast is admitted to your ward, as her family are finding it difficult to cope with her deterioration over the past two weeks. She appears drowsy and lethargic. She has known hepatic and bony secondary lesions.
      Her admission blood tests are:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 7.9 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Calcium Ca2+ 3.13 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      PO43− 0.87 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.91 mmol/l 0.75 –1.00 mmol/l
      Albumin 37 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Haemoglobin 103 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 98.3 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 186 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this lady’s hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (iv) normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a common complication in patients with advanced cancer and can cause significant symptoms. The first step in managing hypercalcaemia is to confirm whether it is true hypercalcaemia by calculating the corrected calcium using the serum calcium and albumin values. Adequate hydration with intravenous normal saline is the first-line treatment, with a generous volume of 3000-4000 ml administered. If the calcium levels remain elevated, a single dose of intravenous bisphosphonate, such as pamidronate, may be prescribed. Local protocols for the management of hypercalcaemia should be followed. Other interventions, such as radiotherapy or oral prednisolone, are not first-line treatments for hypercalcaemia. In palliative care patients, simple interventions to relieve symptoms are warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an...

    Correct

    • You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery

      When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby...

    Correct

    • A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.

      While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.

      Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.

      Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine and vitamin supplementation for the last 3 years. He had ulcerative colitis which was in remission, and colonoscopic surveillance had not shown any dysplastic changes. His only significant history was two episodes of cholangitis for which he had to be hospitalised in the past year. On examination, he was mildly icteric with a body weight of 52 kg. At present, he had no complaints, except fatigue.
      What is the next best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      The only definitive treatment for advanced hepatic disease in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT). Patients with intractable pruritus and recurrent bacterial cholangitis are specifically indicated for transplant. Although there is a 25-30% recurrence rate in 5 years, outcomes following transplant are good, with an 80-90% 5-year survival rate. PSC has become the second most common reason for liver transplantation in the United Kingdom. Other treatments such as steroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, and pentoxifylline have not been found to be useful. Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole can be used to treat bacterial ascending cholangitis, but it will not alter the natural course of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a staghorn calculus of the right kidney is discovered. Which organism is most likely responsible for the infection?

      Your Answer: Proteus mirabilis

      Explanation:

      Proteus mirabilis is responsible for the majority of Proteus infections due to its ability to produce urease. This enzyme promotes urinary alkalinisation, which is a necessary condition for the development of staghorn calculi.

      Renal Stones: Types and Factors

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses formed in the kidneys from substances found in urine. There are different types of renal stones, each with its own unique features and risk factors. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type, accounting for 85% of all calculi. Hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia are major risk factors for calcium oxalate stones. Cystine stones, which are caused by an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport, are relatively rare, accounting for only 1% of all calculi. Uric acid stones, which are formed from purine metabolism, are more common in children with inborn errors of metabolism and are radiolucent. Calcium phosphate stones, which are radio-opaque, may occur in renal tubular acidosis, and high urinary pH increases the supersaturation of urine with calcium and phosphate. Struvite stones, which are slightly radio-opaque, are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections.

      The pH of urine plays a crucial role in stone formation. Urine pH varies from 5-7, with postprandial pH falling as purine metabolism produces uric acid. The urine then becomes more alkaline, known as the alkaline tide. The pH of urine can help determine which type of stone was present when the stone is not available for analysis. Calcium phosphate stones form in normal to alkaline urine with a pH greater than 5.5, while uric acid stones form in acidic urine with a pH of 5.5 or less. Struvite stones form in alkaline urine with a pH greater than 7.2, and cystine stones form in normal urine with a pH of 6.5.

      In summary, renal stones are a common condition with various types and risk factors. Understanding the type of stone and the pH of urine can help in the diagnosis and management of renal stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice? ...

    Correct

    • What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?

      Your Answer: Macintosh

      Explanation:

      Types of Laryngoscopes

      Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue, widespread musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and swollen lumps in her neck and armpit. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 107g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 140* 109/L (150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 3.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 12.5mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 165µmol/L (55-120)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 115mg/L (<5)
      - Antinuclear antibodies: Positive
      - Anti-double-stranded DNA: Positive

      As a result of her abnormal renal function results, a renal biopsy is conducted and examined under electron microscopy, revealing no mesangial deposits. Based on her likely diagnosis, what medication should be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hydroxychloroquine, which is a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD). A patient presenting with symptoms such as fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and lymphadenopathy, along with positive results for antinuclear antibodies and double-stranded DNA antibodies, may be diagnosed with SLE. Hydroxychloroquine works by increasing lysosomal pH in antigen-presenting cells, which interferes with activity and downregulates the inappropriate autoimmune response. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent used in cancer treatment, is not appropriate for SLE management unless there is renal involvement. Methotrexate, another DMARD, can be used as a steroid-sparing agent in conjunction with prednisolone if the patient’s symptoms are not controlled by NSAIDs and hydroxychloroquine. Prednisolone, a corticosteroid, is typically reserved for patients with internal organ involvement or if their symptoms are not controlled by other medications due to the long-term risks associated with steroid use.

      Managing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various organs and tissues in the body. To manage SLE, several treatment options are available. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can help relieve joint pain and inflammation. It is also important to use sunblock to prevent skin damage and flare-ups triggered by sun exposure.

      Hydroxychloroquine is considered the treatment of choice for SLE. It can help reduce disease activity and prevent flares. However, if SLE affects internal organs such as the kidneys, nervous system, or eyes, additional treatment may be necessary. In such cases, prednisolone and cyclophosphamide may be prescribed to manage inflammation and prevent organ damage.

      To summarize, managing SLE involves a combination of medication and lifestyle changes. NSAIDs and sunblock can help manage symptoms, while hydroxychloroquine is the preferred treatment for reducing disease activity. If SLE affects internal organs, additional medication may be necessary to prevent organ damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department unconscious after a motorcycle...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department unconscious after a motorcycle accident. He was the rider of the motorcycle and there is suspicion that he was under the influence of drugs at the time of the accident. His girlfriend is present and unharmed. The police are requesting a blood sample for drug testing, but the patient is unable to provide consent and there is no forensic physician available. As a healthcare worker in the emergency department, what is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Draw a blood sample for later analysis when the patient is competent to consent

      Explanation:

      The BMA has provided guidance on taking blood specimens from incapacitated drivers. The law allows for a blood specimen to be taken without consent if a police constable believes the person is incapable of giving valid consent due to medical reasons. A forensic physician or another doctor must take the sample, and the doctor in charge of the patient’s care must be notified beforehand. The specimen cannot be tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent. Refusal to allow testing may result in prosecution. The new law recognizes the duty to justice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)

      A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.

      Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.

      Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.

      Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (3/3) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Passmed