-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She had undergone a right knee arthroscopy and had been immobile for a while. She only takes paracetamol and codeine for osteoarthritis as needed. An above-knee deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is detected on ultrasound, which is her first DVT. What is the recommended treatment?
Your Answer: Three months of apixaban
Explanation:Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism
Apixaban and rivaroxaban are the preferred medications for treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT), except for patients with renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and warfarin are alternative options for those who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban. Thrombolysis is used to manage pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with haemodynamic instability.
The duration of anticoagulation treatment depends on the type of DVT. For provoked DVTs, which have an identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least three months. After this period, the risks and benefits of continuing anticoagulation treatment must be assessed to determine further treatment. For unprovoked DVTs, which have no identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least six months. After this period, a risk and benefit assessment is required to determine further treatment.
NICE has provided a helpful visual summary to assist in the management of DVT and PE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day history of vomiting. She has vomited 6 times a day for the past 5 days. When asked about pregnancy, she states her periods are irregular. On examination, her chest is clear, heart sounds are normal and she has a non-tender but distended abdomen. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation 98% on air, heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. Blood results: Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160) Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400) WBC 5.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0) CRP 4 mg/L (< 5) βhCG 453,000 mIU/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a distended abdomen and abnormally high serum βhCG is a complete hydatidiform mole. The serum βhCG level of 453,000 mIU/ml is significantly higher than the upper limit of expected levels in an intrauterine pregnancy during weeks 9-12. Morning sickness may also be more severe in molar pregnancies. An ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis by showing a snowstorm appearance, and histology can be performed after evacuation.
While acute appendicitis is a possibility, the patient’s non-tender abdomen and normal CRP and white cell count make it less likely. Appendicitis would not cause high serum βhCG. Ectopic pregnancy should also be ruled out, as it is a potential diagnosis in any woman of childbearing age with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or signs of shock. However, the serum βhCG level for an ectopic pregnancy is unlikely to be as high as in a molar pregnancy. An ultrasound scan can differentiate between a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a molar pregnancy.
Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole
A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.
In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Adjusted calcium: 2.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
- Phosphate: 1.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
- PTH: 2.05 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
- Urea: 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
- Creatinine: 160 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
- 25 OH Vit D: 56 nmol/L (optimal level >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute renal failure
Explanation:Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration-Induced Acute Kidney Injury
The biochemical indicators suggest that the patient is experiencing acute renal failure or acute kidney injury due to dehydration. The slightly elevated levels of calcium and phosphate indicate haemoconcentration, while the significantly increased urea levels compared to creatinine suggest AKI. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is common in AKI, but in a patient with stable chronic kidney disease, it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.
It is important to note that chronic kidney disease often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism in compensation for hypocalcaemia), and anaemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Therefore, the absence of these indicators in the patient’s blood work supports the diagnosis of dehydration-induced AKI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after feeding. They are administered 100% oxygen for 20 minutes and an arterial blood gas is performed.
pH 7.40 7.36 - 7.42
PaO2 11.5 kPa 10.0 - 12.5
PaCO2 5.8 kPa 5.1 - 5.6
On auscultation, the infant has no murmur but a loud single S2. On palpation, there is a prominent ventricular pulse.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:The oxygen level is below 15 kPa, indicating a cyanotic heart defect. The most likely defect to present soon after birth is transposition of the great arteries, which is consistent with the examination findings. Pulmonary valve stenosis may also cause cyanosis if the lesion is large enough and is associated with Noonan syndrome. It produces a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect but typically presents between 1 and 6 months of age. It is characterized by a loud ejection systolic murmur that is most prominent at the left upper sternal edge and radiates to the axillae.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myelofibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders
Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.
One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.
Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.
In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient is conscious but appears drowsy. The ambulance crew found empty paracetamol packets at the scene, indicating a dose of around 15g taken approximately 8 hours ago. Blood tests have been taken, including a paracetamol level, but results are still pending. The patient's vital signs are stable, and he weighs 70kg.
What is the recommended course of action for management?Your Answer: Start acetylcysteine
Explanation:If a patient presents 8-24 hours after taking an overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol, acetylcysteine should be administered even if the plasma-paracetamol concentration is not yet available. This applies to the case of a 22-year-old man who took a significant paracetamol overdose about 9 hours ago. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal are not appropriate in this scenario, and sodium bicarbonate is not typically used in paracetamol poisoning. Observing and monitoring the patient until paracetamol levels return is not recommended in this case, as acetylcysteine should be started immediately due to the significant overdose and the time elapsed since ingestion.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
You are summoned to the neonatal ward to assess a 12 hour old infant delivered via elective caesarian section at 38 weeks gestation. Upon reviewing the medical records, you come across the administration of maternal labetalol for hypertension. During the physical examination, you observe that the baby displays tremors and decreased muscle tone. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Measure blood glucose levels
Explanation:If a baby appears nervous and has low muscle tone, it could indicate neonatal hypoglycemia. It is important to check the baby’s blood glucose levels, especially if the mother has been taking labetalol. Additionally, if the mother has used opiates or illegal drugs during pregnancy, the baby may also exhibit symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for evaluation. He has a history of multiple fractures, delayed dental development, hearing impairment, and abnormal bone growth. The healthcare provider suspects osteogenesis imperfecta. What laboratory findings are expected in this case?
Your Answer: Raised adjusted calcium, low PTH, raised ALP and raised PO4
Correct Answer: Normal adjusted calcium, normal PTH, normal ALP and normal PO4
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, typically presents with normal levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4. This group of disorders affects collagen metabolism, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures. The mildest and most common form is type 1, which is usually diagnosed in childhood and may present with blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with raised adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal or raised ALP levels, and low PO4 levels. Hypoparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium, high PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and variable PO4 levels. Malignant PTH-related protein, which can occur in certain cancers such as squamous cell lung cancer, may present with raised adjusted calcium, low PTH levels, raised ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels, with normal ALP levels also possible.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, without changes to their vision or fever symptoms. They wear contact lenses but have not had an optician appointment recently.
During the examination, the patient's right eye shows injected conjunctiva, but there is no noticeable swelling or redness around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein does not reveal any corneal staining.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms
Explanation:During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn. In this case, the 15-year-old is likely experiencing viral conjunctivitis and should refrain from wearing contact lenses until symptoms have subsided. It is important to note that not having seen an optician recently may affect the patient’s lens prescription, but it does not increase their susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions.
While warm compresses can be helpful for styes or chalazion, they are not as effective for viral conjunctivitis. In this case, the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, indicating that the patient does not require a referral to ophthalmology. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had corneal staining, they would need to visit eye casualty as this would suggest a corneal injury.
Although topical antihistamine eye drops may be appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the patient’s symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge in this case suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a swollen and tender left leg. She had been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on her right leg 3 months ago and was prescribed warfarin, which has maintained her INR at 2.0–3.0. The Doppler scan confirmed a positive DVT on her left leg this time, and she has been referred to haematology for further investigations. What is the most appropriate plan for her anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Continue warfarin, aim INR target 3.5
Explanation:Choosing the Right INR Target for Recurrent DVT: A Guide
When it comes to treating recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), determining the appropriate international normalized ratio (INR) target is crucial. While a target of 2.5 (2.0-3.0) is recommended for first presentations of DVT, the target should be increased to 3.5 for recurrent cases. However, if the patient’s INR has been stable within the target range, there is no need to switch to low-molecular-weight heparin. Additionally, antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel have limited use in venous thromboembolism. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that their patients receive the most effective treatment for recurrent DVT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)