-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?
Your Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.
For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.
In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option
Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.
In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.
While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and painful knuckles, as well as large subcutaneous nodules near her elbows. She also reports experiencing joint stiffness lasting more than an hour in the morning. Upon examination, her PIP joints are hyperextended, and her DIP joints are flexed. If a biopsy were performed on the nodules, what would be the most likely histological appearance?
Your Answer: Amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages
Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells
Explanation:Differentiating Connective Tissue Pathologies: Histological Characteristics
Connective tissue pathologies can present with a variety of clinical features, making it important to understand their histological characteristics for accurate diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by swan neck deformity, subcutaneous nodules, and enlarged knuckles. The histological composition of subcutaneous nodules is areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells.
Gouty tophi, on the other hand, present as an amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages.
A cystic space caused by myxoid degeneration of connective tissue is more typical of a ganglion cyst.
Nodular tenosynovitis is a well-encapsulated nodule of polygonal cells within a tendon sheath.
Lastly, pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by a darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth.
Understanding the histological characteristics of these connective tissue pathologies can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions
Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:
1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical?
Your Answer: The elbow joint
Correct Answer: Shoulder joint
Explanation:Osteoarthrosis and Common Deformities in the Hand
Osteoarthrosis (OA) is a prevalent type of arthritis that often affects the hand. Upon examination of the joints, it is common to find small bone spurs known as nodes on the tops of joints. These nodes can take on different names depending on their location. For instance, if they occur at the joint next to the fingernail, they are called Heberden’s nodes. On the other hand, if they occur at the PIP joints, they are referred to as Bouchard’s nodes. It is worth noting that shoulder joint involvement is rare in OA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Rheumatoid factor Positive
Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Behçet’s syndrome
Explanation:Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations
Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.
Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has noticed hair loss, a rash on her face, and mouth ulcers. Additionally, she has been experiencing joint pain and has been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen to manage it. This is her second visit to the clinic, and the registrar has already sent off some immunology tests. The results show a positive dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects young women. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes and can have a wide range of clinical effects, including a butterfly-shaped rash on the cheeks and nose, joint pain, and involvement of multiple organ systems such as the kidneys, lungs, and heart. SLE is associated with the presence of ANA and dsDNA antibodies, as well as low levels of C3 and C4 in the blood.
Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a syndrome that shares features with several other rheumatological conditions, including SLE, scleroderma, myositis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Common symptoms include fatigue, joint pain, pulmonary involvement, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. MCTD is strongly associated with anti-RNP antibodies.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that typically affects middle-aged women and causes symmetrical joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the hands and feet. If left untreated, it can lead to deformities that affect function. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the presence of autoantibodies such as rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP.
Polymyositis is an autoimmune myositis that causes weakness and loss of muscle mass, particularly in the proximal muscles. Other symptoms may include malaise and difficulty swallowing. Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 autoantibodies.
Systemic sclerosis, also known as diffuse scleroderma, is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects women aged 30-50. It causes collagen accumulation, leading to thickening of the skin and vasculitis affecting small arteries. Systemic sclerosis can affect multiple organ systems, including the skin, lungs, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. It is associated with anti-Scl70 antibodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed?
Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia: Causes and Symptoms
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin D. This condition can be caused by various factors such as malabsorption, renal disease, chronic renal failure, and anticonvulsant therapy. The most common symptom of osteomalacia is bone pain, which is often accompanied by a proximal myopathy. These symptoms are also known as Looser’s zones.
Malabsorption, which is the inability of the body to absorb nutrients from food, can lead to osteomalacia. Renal disease, such as familial hypophosphataemic rickets, can also cause this condition. Chronic renal failure, which is the gradual loss of kidney function, can also lead to osteomalacia. Additionally, anticonvulsant therapy, which is used to treat seizures, can cause a deficiency of vitamin D and lead to osteomalacia.
If you experience bone pain or a proximal myopathy, it is important to seek medical attention. A doctor can diagnose osteomalacia through blood tests and imaging studies. Treatment typically involves vitamin D and calcium supplements, as well as addressing the underlying cause of the deficiency. With proper treatment, the symptoms of osteomalacia can be managed and the condition can be prevented from worsening.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: Elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA)
Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Explanation:Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy
The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.
Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.
On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.
In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone pains, headaches, and nerve entrapment syndromes that have been bothering him for several years. His blood work reveals an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and his urine test shows an increased urinary hydroxyproline. The X-ray of his skull displays a mix of lysis and sclerosis with thickened trabeculae. What medication would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonates to inhibit osteoclastic activity
Explanation:Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Oral Bisphosphonates and More
Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, which can lead to a range of symptoms including bone pain, fractures, and osteoarthritis. Diagnosis is typically made through radiograph findings and laboratory tests. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of symptoms, with physiotherapy and NSAIDs being effective for mild cases. However, for more severe cases, oral bisphosphonates and calcitonin may be necessary to inhibit osteoclastic activity. Chelation therapy, antidepressant medication, and chemotherapy for osteosarcoma are not indicated for Paget’s disease. Operative therapy may be necessary for patients with degenerative joint disease and pathological fractures, but should be preceded by treatment with oral bisphosphonates or calcitonin to reduce bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Sun avoidance
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4 months, despite taking paracetamol PRN. Her recent knee X-rays reveal moderate degenerative changes, and she has requested physiotherapy. What additional treatment should be initiated while waiting for physiotherapy?
Your Answer: Capsaicin cream
Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)
Explanation:Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are a good option for patients experiencing knee or hand symptoms. Regular paracetamol or oral NSAIDs are not provided as choices. Co-codamol is effective for moderate-to-severe pain, but should only be used after trying regular paracetamol and NSAIDs due to potential side-effects. Acupuncture is not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment as studies have shown little to no effectiveness. Capsaicin cream can be used if other treatments are ineffective. Glucosamine and chondroitin are not recommended by NICE for osteoarthritis treatment due to inconsistent research outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.
Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.
What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 78-year-old retired general practitioner (GP) has been experiencing increasing swelling and tenderness of the right knee. Symptoms have been progressively worsening over four days. There is no history of trauma, and he has had no similar symptoms previously. The patient suspects that he may have pseudogout of the knee.
What is the most common tissue for calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition in patients with pseudogout?Your Answer: Synovium
Explanation:Sites of Crystal Deposition in Pseudogout
Pseudogout is a condition characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in various tissues of the body. The most common site of deposition is the synovial fluid, which can lead to joint inflammation and pain. However, CPPD crystals can also be deposited in other tissues such as cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and bursae.
Cartilage is another common site for CPPD crystal deposition, and pseudogout is also known as chondrocalcinosis. Deposition in the ligaments and tendons is possible but less common than in the synovium. Bursae deposition is also possible but less common than synovium deposition.
In summary, while CPPD crystals can be deposited in various tissues in pseudogout, the synovium is the most common site of deposition, followed by cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and bursae.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis
Explanation:Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach
A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.
Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.
Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in his right big toe. He reported experiencing severe pain that disturbed his sleep at night. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking thiazide diuretics. He consumes alcohol most nights of the week. During his last visit to the doctor, he was prescribed antibiotics for painful urination. Upon examination, the doctor observed tenderness, redness, and warmth in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint. The doctor decided to perform joint aspiration.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Common Joint Disorders and Infections
Gout, psoriatic arthritis, pseudogout, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis are all joint disorders and infections that can cause pain, swelling, and redness in affected joints. Gout is caused by crystal deposition in the joint, most commonly in the big toe, and can be triggered by certain medications, trauma, infection, surgery, and alcohol consumption. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with DIPJs being the most commonly affected joints. Pseudogout occurs due to the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals in the joint and usually affects knee joints in patients with previous joint damage. Septic arthritis is caused by joint infection, with gonococci being the most common organism in young patients and Staphylococcus aureus in older patients with pre-existing joint damage. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone caused by various organisms and presents with redness, swelling, pain, and tenderness over the affected bone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints and large peripheral joints. X-rays confirmed a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
The majority of patients with this disease are positive for which one of the following molecules?Your Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:The Role of Human Leukocyte Antigens in Autoimmune Diseases
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) play a crucial role in the development of autoimmune diseases. Different HLAs are associated with specific autoimmune conditions. For example, HLA-B27 is present in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as reactive arthritis and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-Cw6 is associated with psoriasis vulgaris, while HLA-B8 is linked to hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). HLA-DR4 is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and HLA-DR2 is linked to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Japanese people, multiple sclerosis, and Goodpasture syndrome. Understanding the role of HLAs in autoimmune diseases can help with diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)