00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man undergoes an ultrasound screening for abdominal aortic aneurysms and is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man undergoes an ultrasound screening for abdominal aortic aneurysms and is found to have a large aneurysm. He is referred to a vascular surgeon and scheduled for endovascular surgery. During this procedure, a graft is inserted through the femoral artery and into the aorta. Can you identify the level at which the aorta passes through the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following cranial foramina pairings are incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cranial foramina pairings are incorrect?

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum and maxillary nerve.

      Correct Answer: Optic canal and ophthalmic nerve.

      Explanation:

      The optic nerve is transmitted through the optic canal, while the superior orbital fissure is traversed by the ophthalmic nerve.

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the piriformis...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the piriformis muscle?

      Your Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral hip rotators have different nerve supplies. The piriformis muscle is supplied by the ventral rami of S1 and S2, while the obturator internus and superior gemellus are supplied by the nerve to obturator internus. The inferior gemellus and quadrator femoris are supplied by the nerve to quadratus femoris.

      The piriformis muscle is an important landmark in the gluteal region and is closely related to the sciatic nerve, inferior gluteal artery and nerve, and superior gluteal artery and nerve.

      The medial femoral circumflex artery runs deep to the quadratus femoris muscle.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 13-year-old girl is brought to the first-seizure clinic by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought to the first-seizure clinic by her parents after experiencing multiple seizures in the past two weeks. According to her parents, the girl loses consciousness, becomes rigid, and falls to the ground while shaking for about two minutes during each episode. They also report that she has been experiencing urinary incontinence during these seizures.

      The specialist decides to prescribe an antiepileptic medication.

      What is the likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the mechanism of action of the prescribed drug?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine - partial antagonism of calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate - inhibits sodium channels

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario is experiencing a classic case of tonic-clonic seizures, which is characterized by unconsciousness, stiffness, and jerking of muscles. The first-line treatment for males with tonic-clonic seizures is sodium valproate, which is believed to work by inhibiting sodium channels and suppressing the excitation of neurons in the brain. Lamotrigine or levetiracetam is recommended for females due to the teratogenic effects of sodium valproate. Carbamazepine, which is a second-line treatment for focal seizures, would not be prescribed in this case. Ethosuximide, which is used to treat absence seizures, works by partially antagonizing calcium channels in the brain.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A laceration of the wrist produces a median nerve transection in a 50-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A laceration of the wrist produces a median nerve transection in a 50-year-old patient. The wound is clean and seen immediately after injury. Collateral soft tissue damage is absent. The patient asks what the prognosis is. You indicate that the nerve should regrow at approximately:

      Your Answer: 0.1 mm per day

      Correct Answer: 1 mm per day

      Explanation:

      When a peripheral nerve is cut, it causes bleeding and the nerve ends retract. The axon, which is the part of the nerve that transmits signals, starts to degenerate immediately after the injury. This degeneration occurs both in the part of the nerve that is distal to the injury and in the part that is proximal to the first node of Ranvier. As the degenerated axonal fragments are removed by phagocytosis, empty spaces are left in the neurilemmal sheath where the axons used to be.

      After a few days, axons from the proximal part of the nerve start to regrow. If they are able to make contact with the distal neurilemmal sheath, they can regrow at a rate of about 1 mm per day. However, if there is any trauma, fracture, infection, or separation of the neurilemmal sheath ends that prevents contact between the axons, the regrowth can be erratic and may result in the formation of a traumatic neuroma.

      In cases where the nerve injury is accompanied by significant soft tissue damage and bleeding (which increases the risk of infection), some surgeons may choose to delay the reattachment of the severed nerve ends for several weeks.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his right lower limb following a gang altercation. During the assessment, it was discovered that he had lost sensation in the right 1st webbed space, but sensation remained intact across the rest of the dorsum of his right foot. Additionally, he was unable to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Superficial fibular/peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular/peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular/peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the first web space of the foot and supplying the dorsiflexors of the foot. It is a branch of the common fibular/peroneal nerve, which bifurcates from the sciatic nerve at the popliteal fossa. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve travels alongside the anterior tibial artery in the anterior compartment of the leg, crosses the ankle joint, and terminates deep to the extensor retinaculum. Its medial branch provides cutaneous sensory innervation to the first web space between the great toe and second toe. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve also supplies motor function to the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis/peroneus tertius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness in these muscles.

      The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions

      The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.

      After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She reports no history of trauma prior to the headache. The pain began at the back of her head while she was watching TV and quickly reached its peak intensity within 2 seconds, rated at 10/10. She has never experienced a headache before.

      The patient also reported photophobia and neck stiffness after the headache. Neurological examination did not reveal any focal deficits, and her Glasgow Coma Scale score was 15/15.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      If you experience a sudden headache in the occipital region, it could be a sign of subarachnoid haemorrhage. This is especially true if you also develop sensitivity to light and stiffness in the neck. To investigate this possibility, a CT scan of the head may be ordered. If the results are inconclusive, a lumbar puncture with xanthochromia screen may be performed.

      In contrast, intracerebral haemorrhage typically causes focal neurological deficits or a decrease in consciousness. It is often associated with risk factors such as hypertension and diabetes.

      Extradural haemorrhage, on the other hand, usually occurs after head trauma, particularly to the temporal regions. It is caused by injury to the middle meningeal artery and can cause a lucid patient to lose consciousness gradually over several hours. As intracranial pressure increases, patients may also experience focal neurological deficits and cranial nerve palsies.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening tingling sensation in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening tingling sensation in her legs and difficulty maintaining balance. She has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, it is observed that her lower limbs have significantly reduced proprioception and vibration sense. She also experiences distal paraesthesia. Additionally, her knee reflexes are brisk.

      A blood film is taken, which shows macrocytic anaemia and hypersegmented neutrophils.

      Based on the symptoms, what parts of the spinal cord are likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Spinothalamic tract and dorsal column

      Correct Answer: Dorsal column and lateral corticospinal tract

      Explanation:

      Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts, as seen in this case with B12 deficiency. The loss of proprioception and vibration sense on examination, as well as brisk knee reflexes, are consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion finding. The anterior corticospinal tract, spinocerebellar tract, and spinothalamic tract are not typically affected in this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - To which opioid receptor does morphine bind? ...

    Correct

    • To which opioid receptor does morphine bind?

      Your Answer: mu

      Explanation:

      This receptor is targeted by pethidine and other traditional opioids.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes in for a regular eye...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes in for a regular eye check-up. He reports no issues with his vision. However, during the visual field test, there is a slight loss of peripheral vision in his left eye.

      Upon dilation of the pupils, you observe that the cup-to-disc ratio is 0.6 in the right eye and 0.7 in the left eye. Apart from this, the examination is unremarkable. You decide to prescribe timolol.

      What is the mechanism of action of timolol in treating the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Reducing aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure, which can lead to slight peripheral vision loss and a raised cup-to-disc ratio. The preferred initial treatment for this condition is timolol, a beta-blocker that works by reducing the production of fluid responsible for the pressure increase. Timolol is applied directly to the eye, with minimal systemic absorption that is unlikely to affect heart rate or blood pressure. It is important to note that beta blockers do not possess analgesic or anti-inflammatory properties.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (5/10) 50%
Passmed